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NEET 2026 · Full paper

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  • 180 questions: Physics 1 to 45, Chemistry 46 to 90, Biology 91 to 180.
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  1. Question 1 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Units and Measurements

    In the new system the speed of light itself is 1 unit, so distance = speed ×\times time = 1×t1 \times t. Converting the time, 6 min 40 s = 360 + 40 = 400 s, giving a distance of 400 new units, so (4) is correct. Options 3×1083\times10^{8} and 3×10103\times10^{10} wrongly re-insert the SI value of c even though c is now unity, and 500 comes from mis-converting the time.

  2. Question 2 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    List I

    List II

    P) Young's Modulus

    I) ΔdΔL(Ld)\frac{\Delta d}{\Delta L}\left(\frac{L}{d}\right)

    Q) Compressibility

    II) FLA(ΔL)\frac{FL}{A(\Delta L)}

    R) Bulk Modulus

    III) −1ΔP(ΔVV)-\frac{1}{\Delta P}\left(\frac{\Delta V}{V}\right)

    S) Poisson's Ratio

    IV) −P(VΔV)-P\left(\frac{V}{\Delta V}\right)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Mechanical Properties of Solids

    Young's modulus is stress/strain =FLA ΔL= \frac{FL}{A\,\Delta L} (II); compressibility is the reciprocal of bulk modulus =−1ΔPΔVV= -\frac{1}{\Delta P}\frac{\Delta V}{V} (III); bulk modulus =−PVΔV= -P\frac{V}{\Delta V} (IV); and Poisson's ratio is lateral strain over longitudinal strain =ΔdΔLLd= \frac{\Delta d}{\Delta L}\frac{L}{d} (I). Hence P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I, which is option (4).

  3. Question 3 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The current II in the circuit shown below is: (All diodes are ideal and identical)

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Semiconductor Electronics

    An ideal diode has zero forward resistance and infinite reverse resistance, so only the branches whose diodes are forward biased conduct; here that leaves the 4 Ω\Omega and 2 Ω\Omega resistors in parallel across the 10 V battery. The current is I=102+104=152I = \frac{10}{2} + \frac{10}{4} = \frac{15}{2} A, giving (4). The other options wrongly include the reverse-biased 3 Ω\Omega and 5 Ω\Omega branches that actually carry no current.

    figure
  4. Question 4 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s. The number of revolutions completed by the flywheel during this time is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · System of Particles and Rotational Motion

    With uniform angular acceleration the number of revolutions equals the average angular speed times the time: 600+12002=900\frac{600+1200}{2} = 900 revolutions per minute (rpm) over 1060\frac{10}{60} min = 16\frac{1}{6} min, giving 900×16=150900 \times \frac{1}{6} = 150 revolutions, option (3). Equivalently, using ω22=ω12+2αθ\omega_2^2 = \omega_1^2 + 2\alpha\theta gives θ=300π\theta = 300\pi rad, so θ/2π=150\theta/2\pi = 150.

  5. Question 5 · Physics · +4 / −1

    For a simple pendulum, having time period TT, the variation of kinetic energy (K.E.) with time (tt) is represented by:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Oscillations

    The velocity in simple harmonic motion (SHM) is v=Aωcos⁡(ωt+ϕ)v = A\omega\cos(\omega t + \phi), so the kinetic energy K=12mA2ω2cos⁡2(ωt+ϕ)K = \tfrac{1}{2}mA^2\omega^2\cos^2(\omega t + \phi) is proportional to cos⁡2(ωt+ϕ)\cos^2(\omega t + \phi). This is always non-negative and repeats with period T/2T/2, producing two identical humps between 0 and TT that fall to zero at the extreme positions. Graph (3) shows exactly this, so the answer is (3).

  6. Question 6 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A resistor is connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance 2 Ω\Omega. If the current in the circuit is 0.6 A, the terminal voltage of the battery is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Current Electricity

    The terminal voltage is the electromotive force (emf) minus the drop across the internal resistance: V=E−Ir=12−0.6×2=10.8V = E - Ir = 12 - 0.6 \times 2 = 10.8 V, option (4). The 1.2 V drop across the internal resistance is what is subtracted, and 12 V would only be the terminal voltage if no current flowed.

    figure
  7. Question 7 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 27∘^{\circ}C. The ratio of root mean square speed of the molecules of the two gases (vrmsArvrmsCl)\left(\frac{v_{rms}^{Ar}}{v_{rms}^{Cl}}\right) is: (Atomic mass of argon = 40.0 u and molecular mass of chlorine = 70.0 u)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Kinetic Theory

    Since vrms=3RTMv_{rms} = \sqrt{\frac{3RT}{M}}, at the same temperature vrms∝1Mv_{rms} \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{M}}. Therefore vrmsArvrmsCl=MClMAr=7040=72\frac{v_{rms}^{Ar}}{v_{rms}^{Cl}} = \sqrt{\frac{M_{Cl}}{M_{Ar}}} = \sqrt{\frac{70}{40}} = \frac{\sqrt{7}}{2}, option (1). The 2:1 mass ratio of the gases does not affect the rms speed, which depends only on temperature and molar mass.

  8. Question 8 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A ray of monochromatic light is passing through an equilateral prism (ABCABC) as shown in the figure. The refracted ray (QRQR) is parallel to its base (BCBC) and the angle of incidence (ii) is 50∘^{\circ}. Then the angle of deviation (δ\delta) is:

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

    When the ray inside an equilateral prism (A=60∘A = 60^{\circ}) travels parallel to the base, the prism is in the minimum-deviation condition where the angle of incidence equals the angle of emergence (i=ei = e). Using i+e=A+δi + e = A + \delta gives δ=2i−A=2(50∘)−60∘=40∘\delta = 2i - A = 2(50^{\circ}) - 60^{\circ} = 40^{\circ}, option (3).

    figure
  9. Question 9 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II:

    List I

    List II

    P) E=hνE = h\nu

    I) de Broglie wavelength

    Q) Diffraction and Interference

    II) Particle nature of light

    R) λ=h/p\lambda = h/p

    III) Wave nature of light

    S) Compton effect

    IV) Energy of photon

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

    E=hνE = h\nu gives the energy of a photon (IV); diffraction and interference demonstrate the wave nature of light (III); λ=h/p\lambda = h/p is the de Broglie wavelength of a particle (I); and the Compton effect confirms the particle nature of light (II). Hence P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II, which is option (4).

  10. Question 10 · Physics · +4 / −1

    In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is −3.4-3.4 eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately:

    (Take 1 eV = 1.6×10−191.6 \times 10^{-19} J, e = 1.6×10−191.6 \times 10^{-19} C and 14πε0=9×109\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^{9} N m2^2/C2^2)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Atoms

    For the hydrogen atom the magnitude of the total energy equals half the magnitude of the potential energy, so KQ22r=3.4\frac{KQ^2}{2r} = 3.4 eV. Solving, r=9×109×(1.6×10−19)22×3.4×1.6×10−19≈2.1×10−10r = \frac{9\times10^{9}\times(1.6\times10^{-19})^2}{2\times3.4\times1.6\times10^{-19}} \approx 2.1\times10^{-10} m, option (3). This is the n=2n=2 Bohr orbit radius, i.e. 4a0≈2.14a_0 \approx 2.1 angstrom.

  11. Question 11 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A box of mass 15 kg is kept on the floor of a stationary trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trolley is 0.12. Keeping the box in stationary state over the trolley, the maximum acceleration with which the trolley can be moved horizontally in m s−2^{-2} is: (g=10g = 10 m/s2^2)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Laws of Motion

    The box stays with the trolley only while static friction can supply the force needed to accelerate it. The maximum friction is μmg\mu mg, so the greatest common acceleration is a=μg=0.12×10=1.2a = \mu g = 0.12 \times 10 = 1.2 m/s2^2, option (4). The mass cancels out, and beyond this acceleration the box slips relative to the trolley.

    figure
  12. Question 12 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Five capacitors of capacitances C1=C2=C3=C4=10 μFC_1 = C_2 = C_3 = C_4 = 10\ \mu F and C5=2.5 μFC_5 = 2.5\ \mu F are connected as shown, along with a battery of 50 V.

    figure

    The equivalent capacitance and the charges on each capacitor respectively are:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

    The four 10 μF\mu F capacitors are in series, giving 104=2.5 μF\frac{10}{4} = 2.5\ \mu F, and this branch is in parallel with C5=2.5 μFC_5 = 2.5\ \mu F, so Ceq=2.5+2.5=5 μFC_{eq} = 2.5 + 2.5 = 5\ \mu F. Each branch has 50 V across it, so the series branch carries q=2.5×50=125 μCq = 2.5 \times 50 = 125\ \mu C (the same charge flows through C1C_1 to C4C_4) and C5C_5 also holds 2.5×50=125 μC2.5 \times 50 = 125\ \mu C. Every capacitor therefore stores 125 μC\mu C, option (2).

    figure
  13. Question 13 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The amount of work done to raise a mass 'mm' from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to the radius of the Earth 'RR' will be

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Gravitation

    The work done equals the change in gravitational potential energy: W=U2−U1=(−GMm2R)−(−GMmR)=GMm2RW = U_2 - U_1 = \left(-\frac{GMm}{2R}\right) - \left(-\frac{GMm}{R}\right) = \frac{GMm}{2R}. Using g=GMR2g = \frac{GM}{R^2}, this becomes mgR2\frac{mgR}{2}, option (4). It is not the naive mgRmgR because gravity weakens with height, so less work is needed than if g stayed constant.

  14. Question 14 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Each side of a metallic cube of mass 5.580 kg is measured to be 9.0 cm. Keeping the significant figures in view, the density of the material of the cube can be best expressed as X×103 kg m−3X \times 10^3\ \text{kg m}^{-3} where the value of XX is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Units and Measurements

    Density = mass/volume = 5.580(9.0)3\dfrac{5.580}{(9.0)^3} which numerically gives about 7.654×103 kg m−37.654 \times 10^3\ \text{kg m}^{-3}. The side is measured to only two significant figures (9.0 cm), so the final answer must be rounded to two significant figures, giving 7.7×1037.7 \times 10^3. Hence X = 7.7 (option (4)); the other values retain more significant figures than the data justify.

  15. Question 15 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The following plots show variation of velocity (vv) with time (tt) of a ball thrown vertically upward, and falling back. Which of the following plots is/are correct?

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Motion in a Straight Line

    Throughout the flight the only acceleration is g directed downward, so dv/dtdv/dt stays a constant negative value. The velocity therefore decreases linearly, reaches zero at the highest point and turns negative on the way down, tracing a single straight line of constant negative slope, which is plot C. Hence option (1). Plots with a change of slope, a V-shape, or a positive slope contradict the constant downward acceleration.

    figure
  16. Question 16 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple pendulum bob is 0.02 joule. The speed of the simple pendulum bob at equilibrium position is approximately: (Consider mass of the bob = 20 g)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Oscillations

    At the equilibrium (lowest) point the bob's energy is entirely kinetic, so 12mv2\tfrac{1}{2}mv^2 equals the total energy 0.02 J. With m = 20 g = 0.02 kg, v2=2(0.02)0.02=2v^2 = \dfrac{2(0.02)}{0.02} = 2, giving v=2≈1.41 m/sv = \sqrt{2} \approx 1.41\ \text{m/s} (option (2)). Forgetting to divide by the mass gives 2(0.02)=0.2 m/s\sqrt{2(0.02)} = 0.2\ \text{m/s} (option (1)).

  17. Question 17 · Physics · +4 / −1

    In Young's double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength λ\lambda, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ\lambda, is KK units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is λ3\dfrac{\lambda}{3} will be

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Wave Optics

    The interference intensity follows I=I0cos⁡2(Δϕ2)I = I_0\cos^2\left(\dfrac{\Delta\phi}{2}\right). A path difference of λ\lambda gives Δϕ=2π\Delta\phi = 2\pi, so I=I0=KI = I_0 = K, i.e. I0=KI_0 = K. For a path difference λ/3\lambda/3, Δϕ=2π3\Delta\phi = \dfrac{2\pi}{3}, giving I=I0cos⁡2(π3)=I04=K4I = I_0\cos^2\left(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\right) = \dfrac{I_0}{4} = \dfrac{K}{4} (option (1)). The other choices ignore the cos⁡2\cos^2 dependence on phase.

  18. Question 18 · Physics · +4 / −1

    In the circuit shown below, the voltage appearing across the diode DD will be of the form:

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Semiconductor Electronics

    The applied alternating current (ac) voltage drives current through the diode and R in series. During the half-cycle that reverse-biases the diode, almost the entire source voltage appears across the non-conducting diode, whereas in the forward-biased half-cycle the diode drop is nearly zero. So vDv_D consists of one-sided humps with flat (near-zero) gaps, matching option (4). A full sine or a double-hump trace would wrongly imply the diode never blocks the current.

    figure
  19. Question 19 · Physics · +4 / −1

    An ac circuit contains a resistance of 1 kΩ\Omega, a capacitor of 0.1 μ\muF and an inductor of 1 mH connected in series. The resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Alternating Current

    Series resonance occurs at f0=12πLCf_0 = \dfrac{1}{2\pi\sqrt{LC}}, which is independent of the resistance. With L=1 mH=10−3 HL = 1\ \text{mH} = 10^{-3}\ \text{H} and C=0.1 μF=10−7 FC = 0.1\ \mu\text{F} = 10^{-7}\ \text{F}, f0=12π10−10=12π×10−5≈15.9 kHzf_0 = \dfrac{1}{2\pi\sqrt{10^{-10}}} = \dfrac{1}{2\pi \times 10^{-5}} \approx 15.9\ \text{kHz} (option (4)). The resistance value is a distractor since it does not enter the resonance formula.

  20. Question 20 · Physics · +4 / −1

    In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe. Evaluate the following statements and choose the correct answer:

    Statement I: As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy.
    Statement II: Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Wave Optics

    Interference and diffraction only redistribute light energy, so darkening of one region is compensated by brightening of another, keeping total energy unchanged. This makes statement I consistent with conservation of energy, i.e. Statement I is true. However, interference and diffraction are general wave phenomena shown by sound, water and other waves, not only light, so statement II is false. Hence 'I true, II false' (option (3)).

  21. Question 21 · Physics · +4 / −1

    For a travelling harmonic wave y(x,t)=2.0cos⁡2π(10t−0.0080x+0.35)y(x, t) = 2.0\cos 2\pi(10t - 0.0080x + 0.35), where xx and yy are in cm and tt in s, the phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of 0.5 m is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Waves

    The spatial part of the phase is 2π(0.0080)x2\pi(0.0080)x with x in cm, so the wave number term gives phase difference Δϕ=2π(0.0080) Δx\Delta\phi = 2\pi(0.0080)\,\Delta x. Converting the separation to centimetres, Δx=0.5 m=50 cm\Delta x = 0.5\ \text{m} = 50\ \text{cm}, so Δϕ=2π×0.0080×50=0.8π\Delta\phi = 2\pi \times 0.0080 \times 50 = 0.8\pi rad (option (2)). The wrong answers arise from failing to convert 0.5 m into 50 cm.

  22. Question 22 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The magnitude and direction of the acceleration produced in a body of mass 5 kg when two mutually perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N act on it, are respectively:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Laws of Motion

    The two perpendicular forces give a resultant F=82+62=10 NF = \sqrt{8^2 + 6^2} = 10\ \text{N}, so a=F/m=10/5=2 m s−2a = F/m = 10/5 = 2\ \text{m s}^{-2}. The resultant makes an angle θ\theta with the 8 N force where tan⁡θ=6/8=3/4\tan\theta = 6/8 = 3/4, i.e. tan⁡−1(3/4)\tan^{-1}(3/4) measured from the 8 N force (option (4)). Option (1) forgets to divide by the mass, and the others attach the angle to the wrong force or invert the ratio.

    figure
  23. Question 23 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Consider two uncharged capacitors of equal capacitance 200 pF. One of them is charged by a 100 V supply and disconnected. Now this capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor. The amount of electrostatic energy lost in the process is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

    When a charged capacitor shares its charge with an identical uncharged one, the energy dissipated is 12C1C2C1+C2V2\dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{C_1 C_2}{C_1 + C_2}V^2. With C1=C2=200 pFC_1 = C_2 = 200\ \text{pF} and V=100 VV = 100\ \text{V}, this equals 12(100 pF)(100)2=0.5×10−6 J\dfrac{1}{2}(100\ \text{pF})(100)^2 = 0.5 \times 10^{-6}\ \text{J} (option (1)). The loss is real and independent of the connecting-wire resistance; answers in whole joules mishandle the pico-farad factor.

  24. Question 24 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is: (g=9.8 m/s2g = 9.8\ \text{m/s}^2)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Work, Energy and Power

    The useful power is work done against gravity divided by time, P=mghtP = \dfrac{mgh}{t}. Substituting, P=1000×9.8×2010=19600 W=19.6 kWP = \dfrac{1000 \times 9.8 \times 20}{10} = 19600\ \text{W} = 19.6\ \text{kW} (option (3)). The 19.6 W answer drops a factor of 1000, and the 39.2 values double-count g or the height.

  25. Question 25 · Physics · +4 / −1

    In a vernier calliper, 20 VSD coincide with 16 MSD (each division of length 1 mm). The least count of the vernier callipers is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Units and Measurements

    Least count = 1 main scale division (MSD) - 1 VSD. Since 20 VSD = 16 MSD, one VSD equals 1620\dfrac{16}{20} MSD, so L.C. = (1−1620)\left(1 - \dfrac{16}{20}\right) MSD = 420\dfrac{4}{20} MSD = 0.2×10.2 \times 1 mm = 0.2 mm = 0.02 cm (option (3)). Forgetting to convert millimetres to centimetres gives the distractor 0.2 cm.

  26. Question 26 · Physics · +4 / −1

    When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reaction times (g=9.8g = 9.8 m s−2^{-2}). Person A has a reaction time of 0.20 s, Person B has 0.22 s, Person C has 0.18 s, Person D has 0.19 s, and Person E has 0.21 s. What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Motion in a Straight Line

    The ruler falls freely, so distance s=12gt2s = \frac{1}{2}gt^2 increases monotonically with reaction time. Ranking the reaction times from largest to smallest gives B(0.22) > E(0.21) > A(0.20) > D(0.19) > C(0.18), which is the same order as the distances. Option (4) is the exact reverse (smallest first). Option (2) is also smallest first and swaps persons B and E as well. Option (1) swaps persons D and C.

  27. Question 27 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A uniform metallic wire having resistance 4 Ω\Omega is bent to form a square loop (ABCD) (see figure). A resistance of 2 Ω\Omega is connected between points B and D and a battery of 2 V is connected across points A and C as shown in the figure. Now the value of current (II) is:

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Current Electricity

    The 4 Ω\Omega wire splits equally, so each side of the square is 1 Ω\Omega. With the 2 Ω\Omega across diagonal BD and the 2 V battery across A and C, the four 1 Ω\Omega arms form a balanced Wheatstone bridge, so no current flows through the 2 Ω\Omega branch. The effective resistance across AC is 1 Ω\Omega, giving I=E/R=2/1=2I = E/R = 2/1 = 2 A.

    figure

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (2) Assumes far too low a resistance.
    - (3) Arbitrary value from mis-combining resistances.
    - (4) Would need 0.5 Ω\Omega, as if each path from A to C had one 1 Ω\Omega side instead of two.

  28. Question 28 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A room heater is rated 400 W, 220 V. If the supply voltage drops to 200 V, what will be the power consumed (approximately)?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Current Electricity

    The heater resistance is fixed, so P=V2/RP = V^2/R gives Pc=(VV0)2P0=(200220)2×400≈331P_c = \left(\frac{V}{V_0}\right)^2 P_0 = \left(\frac{200}{220}\right)^2 \times 400 \approx 331 W. Power scales as the square of voltage, not linearly, so option (2) (unchanged) and option (1) (linear scaling) are wrong, and option (4) over-reduces.

  29. Question 29 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A 100-turn closely wound circular coil of radius 5 cm has a magnetic field of 3.14×10−33.14 \times 10^{-3} T at its centre. The current flowing through the coil, and the magnitude of the magnetic moment of this coil are, respectively: (Take μ0=4π×10−7\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} T m/A)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Moving Charges and Magnetism

    From B=μ0Ni2RB = \frac{\mu_0 N i}{2R}, the current is i=2RBμ0N=2×5×10−2×3.14×10−34π×10−7×100=2.5i = \frac{2RB}{\mu_0 N} = \frac{2\times5\times10^{-2}\times3.14\times10^{-3}}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times100} = 2.5 A. The magnetic moment M=NiA=NiπR2=100×2.5×π×(0.05)2≈2M = NiA = Ni\pi R^2 = 100\times2.5\times\pi\times(0.05)^2 \approx 2 A m2^2. Only option (4) gives both correct values.

  30. Question 30 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 3 cm with a small cut, is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the plane of the loop. The emf developed across the cut, if the velocity of the loop is 2 cm s−1^{-1}, in a direction normal to the shorter side of the loop, will be:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Electromagnetic Induction

    The motional electromotive force (emf) is E=BvlE = Bvl, where ll is the side perpendicular to the velocity. Since the loop moves normal to the shorter side, the effective length is the shorter side (3 cm): E=0.3×(2×10−2)×(3×10−2)=1.8×10−4E = 0.3 \times (2\times10^{-2}) \times (3\times10^{-2}) = 1.8\times10^{-4} V. Option (1) wrongly uses the 8 cm side.

  31. Question 31 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Four statements are given (AA is mass number). Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Statement I: The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A1/3A^{1/3}.
    Statement II: The volume of a nucleus is proportional to AA.
    Statement III: The difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called the mass defect.
    Statement IV: The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Nuclei

    Nuclear radius r=r0A1/3r = r_0 A^{1/3}, so volume ∝r3∝A\propto r^3 \propto A (statement II correct, I wrong). The mass defect is the difference between the total mass of the constituent nucleons and the actual mass of the nucleus (statement IV correct, III wrong). Hence only II and IV are true.

  32. Question 32 · Physics · +4 / −1

    An unknown nucleus has a nuclear density of 2.29×10172.29 \times 10^{17} kg/m3^3 and mass of 19.926×10−2719.926 \times 10^{-27} kg. Its mass number AA is approximately: (Take R0=1.2×10−15R_0 = 1.2 \times 10^{-15} m, 4π=12.564\pi = 12.56)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Nuclei

    Using density = mass/volume with volume =43πR3= \frac{4}{3}\pi R^3 and R=R0A1/3R = R_0 A^{1/3}, we get 43πR03A=mρ\frac{4}{3}\pi R_0^3 A = \frac{m}{\rho}. Solving, A=mρ⋅34πR03=19.926×10−27×32.29×1017×12.56×(1.2×10−15)3≈12A = \frac{m}{\rho}\cdot\frac{3}{4\pi R_0^3} = \frac{19.926\times10^{-27}\times3}{2.29\times10^{17}\times12.56\times(1.2\times10^{-15})^3} \approx 12.

  33. Question 33 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Savitha, a XI standard student, while conducting an experiment to determine the effective length of a simple pendulum LL, notes down the data of time taken to complete 30 oscillations as 60 s and hence calculates the length of the simple pendulum as: (Take π2=9.8\pi^2 = 9.8, and g=9.8g = 9.8 m/s2^2)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Oscillations

    The time period is T=60/30=2T = 60/30 = 2 s. From T=2πL/gT = 2\pi\sqrt{L/g}, the length is L=gT24π2=9.8×44×9.8=1L = \frac{gT^2}{4\pi^2} = \frac{9.8\times4}{4\times9.8} = 1 m. The other options result from arithmetic or period errors.

  34. Question 34 · Physics · +4 / −1

    An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 75 J/s, then the rate at which internal energy increases will be:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Thermodynamics

    By the first law of thermodynamics Q=ΔU+WQ = \Delta U + W. Differentiating with respect to time, dQdt=d(ΔU)dt+dWdt\frac{dQ}{dt} = \frac{d(\Delta U)}{dt} + \frac{dW}{dt}, so d(ΔU)dt=100−75=25\frac{d(\Delta U)}{dt} = 100 - 75 = 25 W. The distractors correspond to the given work rate (1), heat rate (2), or the incorrect sum (3).

  35. Question 35 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A thin wire of length 'LL' and linear mass density 'mm' is bent into a circular ring (in xx-yy plane) with centre 'CC' as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis yy′yy' will be:

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · System of Particles and Rotational Motion

    The ring's mass is M=mLM = mL and its radius r=L/2πr = L/2\pi (since L=2πrL = 2\pi r). The axis yy′yy' is tangential to the ring in its plane, so by the parallel axis theorem Iyy′=ICM+Mr2=12Mr2+Mr2=32Mr2=32(mL)(L2π)2=3mL38π2I_{yy'} = I_{CM} + Mr^2 = \tfrac{1}{2}Mr^2 + Mr^2 = \tfrac{3}{2}Mr^2 = \tfrac{3}{2}(mL)\left(\tfrac{L}{2\pi}\right)^2 = \dfrac{3mL^3}{8\pi^2}. The correct expression has L3L^3 and π2\pi^2, eliminating the other options.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (1) Uses π\pi instead of π\pi2^{2} in the denominator.
    - (3) Wrong power of L and π\pi.
    - (4) Wrong power of L.

  36. Question 36 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω\Omega gives full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. It is converted into an ammeter of range 0 - 10 A. The shunt required is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Moving Charges and Magnetism

    The shunt is in parallel with the galvanometer, so isrs=iGRGi_s r_s = i_G R_G, where is≈10i_s \approx 10 A and iG=1i_G = 1 mA. Thus 10×rs=10−3×10010\times r_s = 10^{-3}\times100, giving rs=0.01r_s = 0.01 Ω\Omega. The other values come from misplacing the factor of ten in the current ratio.

    figure

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (2) Off by a factor of 10.
    - (3) Off by a factor of 100.
    - (4) Off by a factor of 10 (too small).

  37. Question 37 · Physics · +4 / −1

    In a metre bridge experiment (see figure), the positions of the cell, EE, and galvanometer, GG, are interchanged. We shall observe in the galvanometer:

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Current Electricity

    A metre bridge is a Wheatstone network, whose balance (null) condition is symmetric with respect to interchanging the cell and the galvanometer, so the balance point does not move. Away from that point the bridge is unbalanced and the galvanometer deflects; the direction of deflection depends on which side of balance the jockey lies, and it reads zero exactly at the balance point.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (1) Deflection is not restricted to one side; it flips about the null point.
    - (2) No deflection occurs only at balance, not everywhere.
    - (3) Same error as (1) but for the opposite side.

  38. Question 38 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A5\ \text{A} and frequency is 60 Hz60\ \text{Hz}. How long will the current, starting from zero, take to reach the peak value?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Alternating Current

    With i=ipeaksin⁡(ωt)i = i_{peak}\sin(\omega t) and ω=2πf=120π rad/s\omega = 2\pi f = 120\pi\ \text{rad/s}, the current first equals its peak when sin⁡(ωt)=1\sin(\omega t) = 1, i.e. ωt=π/2\omega t = \pi/2. This gives t=14f=14×60=1240 st = \dfrac{1}{4f} = \dfrac{1}{4 \times 60} = \dfrac{1}{240}\ \text{s} (a quarter of the period).

  39. Question 39 · Physics · +4 / −1

    The figure shows a long straight solid wire of circular cross-section of radius aa carrying steady current II. The current II is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The plot which correctly represents the variation of magnetic field BB with distance rr from the axis of the conductor is:

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Moving Charges and Magnetism

    By Ampere's law, inside the wire (r<ar<a) only the enclosed fraction of current contributes, giving B=μ0Ir2πa2B = \dfrac{\mu_0 I r}{2\pi a^2}, so B∝rB \propto r (a straight line rising to a maximum at r=ar=a). Outside (r>ar>a) the full current is enclosed, giving B=μ0I2πrB = \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r}, so B∝1/rB \propto 1/r. Only graph (1) shows this linear rise followed by a 1/r1/r decay.

  40. Question 40 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Two statements are given below. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    I. A. When the forward bias voltage across a p-n junction diode increases above a certain threshold voltage, the diode current increases significantly.
    II. B. This current is called reverse saturation current.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Semiconductor Electronics

    Statement A is correct: beyond the threshold (knee) voltage in forward bias, the diode current rises steeply, as seen in the forward V-I characteristic. Statement B is wrong: this rapidly increasing current is the forward current, whereas reverse saturation current is the very small, nearly constant current that flows under reverse bias.

    figure
  41. Question 41 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Which of the following statements are correct? Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Statement I: Inside a conductor, the electrostatic field is zero.
    Statement II: Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor does not depend on its surface charge density.
    Statement III: The interior of a charged conductor can have no excess charge in the static situation.
    Statement IV: At the surface of a charged conductor, the electrostatic field must be normal to the surface at every point.
    Statement V: The electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside a charged conductor.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

    In electrostatic equilibrium, the electric field inside a conductor is zero, and any excess charge lies on its surface. The field just outside is normal to the surface and depends on the local surface charge density, E=σε0n^E = \dfrac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0}\hat{n}. The potential is constant inside but need not be zero. Therefore internal statements I, III and IV hold; II and V do not.

  42. Question 42 · Physics · +4 / −1

    For a metal of work function 6.6 eV6.6\ \text{eV}, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect? (Take Planck's constant as 6.6×10−34 J s6.6 \times 10^{-34}\ \text{J s})

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

    Photoemission requires photon energy hcλ≥W0\dfrac{hc}{\lambda} \geq W_0, i.e. wavelength λ≤hcW0\lambda \leq \dfrac{hc}{W_0}. Here hcW0=6.6×10−34×3×1086.6×1.6×10−19≈187.5 nm\dfrac{hc}{W_0} = \dfrac{6.6\times10^{-34}\times3\times10^{8}}{6.6\times1.6\times10^{-19}} \approx 187.5\ \text{nm}. Any wavelength longer than this cannot eject electrons; 200 nm>187.5 nm200\ \text{nm} > 187.5\ \text{nm}, so it produces no photoelectric effect.

  43. Question 43 · Physics · +4 / −1

    In a concave lens, a ray of light emanating from the object parallel to the principal axis of the lens after refraction:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

    A concave lens is diverging, so a ray incident parallel to the principal axis bends away from the axis and travels as though it originated from the focal point on the same (incident) side of the lens. Traced backwards, the emergent ray appears to diverge from that near-side focus. Strictly, this near-side point is the second principal focus (F2F_2 in the figure), but option (2) is still the best answer, because it is the only option where the ray appears to diverge from a focus.

    figure

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (1) A parallel ray relates to the focus, not to 2F2F; this describes a different ray.
    - (3) It does not stay parallel; a diverging lens spreads a parallel beam.
    - (4) The emergent ray only appears to come from the second principal focus F2F_2 on the incident side; it moves away from that point and never passes through it.

  44. Question 44 · Physics · +4 / −1

    A submarine is designed to withstand an absolute pressure of 100 atm100\ \text{atm}. How deep can it go below the water surface? (Consider the density of water =1000 kg m−3= 1000\ \text{kg m}^{-3}, 1 atm=1×105 Pa1\ \text{atm} = 1 \times 10^{5}\ \text{Pa} and gravitational acceleration g=10 m/s2g = 10\ \text{m/s}^2)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Mechanical Properties of Fluids

    Absolute pressure at depth hh is P=P0+ρghP = P_0 + \rho g h. So 100×105=1×105+1000×10×h100\times10^{5} = 1\times10^{5} + 1000\times10\times h, giving 99×105=104 h99\times10^{5} = 10^{4}\,h, hence h=990 mh = 990\ \text{m}.

  45. Question 45 · Physics · +4 / −1

    Match List-I (Electromagnetic wave) with List-II (Production) and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    List I

    List II

    P) Microwave

    I) Electrons in atoms emit light when they move from a higher energy level to a lower energy level

    Q) Visible light

    II) Radioactive decay of nucleus

    R) Gamma rays

    III) Vibration of atoms and molecules

    S) Infra-red rays

    IV) Klystron valve or magnetron valve

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Electromagnetic Waves

    Microwaves are generated by klystron or magnetron valves (P-IV). Visible light is emitted when atomic electrons drop from higher to lower energy levels (Q-I). Gamma rays are produced in radioactive decay of the nucleus (R-II). Infra-red radiation arises from the vibration of atoms and molecules (S-III). This matches option (3).

  46. Question 46 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Select the reagents that reduce nitriles to primary amines. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Statement I: (i) LiAlH4\mathrm{LiAlH}_{4}; (ii) H2O\mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{O}
    Statement II: Sn+HCl\mathrm{Sn} + \mathrm{HCl}
    Statement III: H2/Ni\mathrm{H}_{2}/\mathrm{Ni}
    Statement IV: Na(Hg)/C2H5OH\mathrm{Na}(\mathrm{Hg})/\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{OH}
    Statement V: Br2\mathrm{Br}_{2}/aq. NaOH\mathrm{NaOH}

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Amines

    Nitriles R−CN\mathrm{R}-\mathrm{CN} are reduced to primary amines R−CH2−NH2\mathrm{R}-\mathrm{CH}_{2}-\mathrm{NH}_{2} by LiAlH4\mathrm{LiAlH}_{4} followed by hydrolysis, by catalytic hydrogenation H2/Ni\mathrm{H}_{2}/\mathrm{Ni}, and by Na(Hg)/C2H5OH\mathrm{Na}(\mathrm{Hg})/\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{OH} (sodium amalgam in ethanol). So Statements I, III and IV are correct. Sn+HCl\mathrm{Sn} + \mathrm{HCl} (Stephen reduction) stops at the aldehyde, and Br2\mathrm{Br}_{2}/aq. NaOH is the Hoffmann bromamide reaction on amides, not a nitrile reduction.

  47. Question 47 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II:

    List I

    List II

    P) V2O5\mathrm{V}_{2}\mathrm{O}_{5}

    I) Preparation of ammonia from N2\mathrm{N}_{2}/H2\mathrm{H}_{2} mixture

    Q) Fe\mathrm{Fe}

    II) Polymerisation of alkynes

    R) PdCl2\mathrm{PdCl}_{2}

    III) Preparation of H2SO4\mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{SO}_{4} and SO2\mathrm{SO}_{2}

    S) Ni complex

    IV) Oxidation of ethyne to ethanal

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · The d- and f-Block Elements

    V2O5\mathrm{V}_{2}\mathrm{O}_{5} is the contact-process catalyst linked with H2SO4\mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{SO}_{4}/SO2\mathrm{SO}_{2} chemistry (III); Fe is the Haber-process catalyst for ammonia from N2\mathrm{N}_{2}/H2\mathrm{H}_{2} (I); PdCl2\mathrm{PdCl}_{2} catalyses Wacker oxidation of ethyne/ethene to ethanal (IV); and Ni complexes catalyse polymerisation of alkynes (II). Hence P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II.

  48. Question 48 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Consider the following reaction: 2A(g)+B(g)→2D(g)2A(g) + B(g) \rightarrow 2D(g). ΔU⊖=−10 kJ mol−1\Delta U^{\ominus} = -10\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1} and ΔS⊖=−44 JK−1\Delta S^{\ominus} = -44\ \text{JK}^{-1} at 298 K. Identify the correct option with ΔG⊖\Delta G^{\ominus} for the reaction and the spontaneity of the reaction at 298 K. (Given: R=8.31 J mol−1 K−1R = 8.31\ \text{J mol}^{-1}\ \text{K}^{-1})

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Chemical Thermodynamics

    With Δng=2−3=−1\Delta n_g = 2 - 3 = -1, ΔH⊖=ΔU⊖+ΔngRT=−10−298×8.311000=−12.48 kJ\Delta H^{\ominus} = \Delta U^{\ominus} + \Delta n_g RT = -10 - \frac{298\times8.31}{1000} = -12.48\ \text{kJ}. Then ΔG⊖=ΔH⊖−TΔS⊖=−12.48−298×(−44)1000=−12.48+13.112≈+0.636 kJ mol−1\Delta G^{\ominus} = \Delta H^{\ominus} - T\Delta S^{\ominus} = -12.48 - \frac{298\times(-44)}{1000} = -12.48 + 13.112 \approx +0.636\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}. A positive ΔG⊖\Delta G^{\ominus} means the reaction is non-spontaneous.

  49. Question 49 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Match List I (Quantum Numbers, given as n and l) with List II (Orbital):

    List I

    List II

    P) n = 2, l = 1

    I) 3d

    Q) n = 4, l = 0

    II) 2p

    R) n = 5, l = 3

    III) 4s

    S) n = 3, l = 2

    IV) 5f

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Structure of Atom

    The orbital is named by n and the subshell letter for l (l = 0,1,2,3 -> s,p,d,f). So n=2,l=1 is 2p (II); n=4,l=0 is 4s (III); n=5,l=3 is 5f (IV); n=3,l=2 is 3d (I). This gives P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I.

  50. Question 50 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    In a qualitative analysis, Bi3+\mathrm{Bi}^{3+} is detected by appearance of precipitate of BiO(OH)(s)\mathrm{BiO}(\mathrm{OH})(s). Calculate pH when the following equilibrium exists at 298 K. BiO(OH)(s)⇌BiO+(aq)+OH−(aq)\mathrm{BiO}(\mathrm{OH})(\text{s}) \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{BiO}^{+}(\text{aq}) + \mathrm{OH}^{-}(\text{aq}), K=4×10−10K = 4\times10^{-10}. (Given: log⁡2=0.3010\log 2 = 0.3010)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Equilibrium

    For the dissolution, K=s2K = s^2 since a solid gives equal amounts of BiO+\mathrm{BiO}^{+} and OH−\mathrm{OH}^{-}. So s=4×10−10=2×10−5 M=[OH−]s = \sqrt{4\times10^{-10}} = 2\times10^{-5}\ \text{M} = [\mathrm{OH}^{-}]. Then pOH=5−log⁡2=4.699\text{pOH} = 5 - \log 2 = 4.699 and pH=14−4.699=9.301\text{pH} = 14 - 4.699 = 9.301.

  51. Question 51 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Biomolecules

    DNA has a double-stranded helical secondary structure (two antiparallel polynucleotide chains) and its four bases are adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine. RNA is generally single-stranded and contains uracil in place of thymine, so only the DNA statement pairing double-strand + thymine is correct.

  52. Question 52 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The pair of molecules that are metamers among the following is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

    Metamers have the same molecular formula and same functional group but differ in the alkyl groups attached on either side of that group. Methyl n-propyl ether CH3OCH2CH2CH3\mathrm{CH}_{3}\mathrm{OCH}_{2}\mathrm{CH}_{2}\mathrm{CH}_{3} and diethyl ether CH3CH2OCH2CH3\mathrm{CH}_{3}\mathrm{CH}_{2}\mathrm{OCH}_{2}\mathrm{CH}_{3} are both C4H10O\mathrm{C}_{4}\mathrm{H}_{10}\mathrm{O} ethers differing only in the distribution of carbons about the oxygen, so they are metamers.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (1) 1-propanol and 2-propanol are position isomers, not metamers.
    - (2) n-Pentane and isopentane are chain isomers.
    - (3) Propanone and propanal are functional-group isomers.

  53. Question 53 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Match List I (Complex) with List II (Type of isomerism):

    List I

    List II

    a) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2][\mathrm{Pt}(\mathrm{NH}_{3})_{2}\mathrm{Cl}_{2}]

    i) Optical

    b) [Co(en)3]3+[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{en})_{3}]^{3+}

    ii) Solvate

    c) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{NH}_{3})_{5}\mathrm{NO}_{2}]\mathrm{Cl}_{2}

    iii) Geometrical

    d) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3[\mathrm{Cr}(\mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{O})_{6}]\mathrm{Cl}_{3}

    iv) Linkage

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Coordination Compounds

    [Pt(NH3)2Cl2][\mathrm{Pt}(\mathrm{NH}_{3})_{2}\mathrm{Cl}_{2}] shows cis/trans (geometrical) isomerism (III); [Co(en)3]3+[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{en})_{3}]^{3+} is a tris-chelate that is chiral, showing optical isomerism (I); [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{NH}_{3})_{5}\mathrm{NO}_{2}]\mathrm{Cl}_{2} shows linkage isomerism through the ambidentate NO2−\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}/ONO−\mathrm{ONO}^{-} ligand (IV); and [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3[\mathrm{Cr}(\mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{O})_{6}]\mathrm{Cl}_{3} shows solvate (hydrate) isomerism (II). Hence A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

    figure
  54. Question 54 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Match List I (Order of reaction) with List II (Unit of rate constant):

    List I

    List II

    P) Zero order

    I) mol−1 L s−1\text{mol}^{-1}\ \text{L}\ \text{s}^{-1}

    Q) First order

    II) mol−2 L2 s−1\text{mol}^{-2}\ \text{L}^{2}\ \text{s}^{-1}

    R) Second order

    III) s−1\text{s}^{-1}

    S) Third order

    IV) mol L−1 s−1\text{mol}\ \text{L}^{-1}\ \text{s}^{-1}

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Chemical Kinetics

    The unit of the rate constant of an nth-order reaction is (mol L−1)1−n s−1(\text{mol L}^{-1})^{1-n}\,\text{s}^{-1}. For n=0 this is mol L−1s−1\text{mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1} (IV); n=1 gives s−1\text{s}^{-1} (III); n=2 gives mol−1L s−1\text{mol}^{-1}\text{L s}^{-1} (I); n=3 gives mol−2L2s−1\text{mol}^{-2}\text{L}^2\text{s}^{-1} (II). Hence P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II.

  55. Question 55 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

    The longest continuous carbon chain has seven carbons, so the parent is heptane. Numbering to give the lowest set of locants places an ethyl group at C-3 and a methyl group at C-5. Listing substituents alphabetically (ethyl before methyl) gives 3-ethyl-5-methylheptane.

    figure

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (2) Chooses a 6-carbon parent, missing the longest chain.
    - (3) Right parent but substituents not in alphabetical order and wrong locants.
    - (4) Wrong parent chain length and substituent identification.

  56. Question 56 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    A bulb is rated at 150 watt, converting 8% energy into light. If energy of one photon is 4.42×10−19 J4.42 \times 10^{-19}\ \text{J}, how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Structure of Atom

    In one second the bulb consumes 150 J; only 8% becomes light, so light energy per second = 150×0.08=12150 \times 0.08 = 12 J. The number of photons n = (light energy)/(energy per photon) = 12/(4.42×10−19)≈2.71×101912 / (4.42 \times 10^{-19}) \approx 2.71 \times 10^{19}. The other options come from omitting the 8% factor or arithmetic errors.

  57. Question 57 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Hydrogen

    Steam reforming of methane over a nickel catalyst at about 1273 K gives carbon monoxide and dihydrogen (synthesis gas): CH4+H2O→CO+3H2\mathrm{CH}_{4} + \mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{O} \rightarrow \mathrm{CO} + 3\mathrm{H}_{2}. This is the industrial route to dihydrogen. The other options do not match the primary products of this reaction.

  58. Question 58 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Compound P (C8H8OC_8H_8O) gives a red-orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP reagent but does not reduce Fehling's reagent or give a positive Tollens' test. On drastic oxidation with chromic acid, P gives an aromatic product Q that produces effervescence with aqueous NaHCO3NaHCO_3. Compounds P and Q, respectively, are:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

    P is acetophenone, C8H8O\mathrm{C}_{8}\mathrm{H}_{8}\mathrm{O}. Its aryl-ketone carbonyl gives the red-orange 2,4-DNP precipitate, while as a ketone it is negative to BOTH Fehling's and Tollens'; a positive Tollens' test would mean an aldehyde, so an aromatic aldehyde such as p-tolualdehyde is excluded. Drastic oxidation with chromic acid cleaves the methyl ketone to benzoic acid: C6H5COCH3→CrO3/H+C6H5COOH\mathrm{C}_{6}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{COCH}_{3} \xrightarrow{\text{CrO3/H+}} \mathrm{C}_{6}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{COOH}. Q is benzoic acid, whose −COOH liberates CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} with aqueous NaHCO3\mathrm{NaHCO}_{3}: C6H5COOH+NaHCO3→C6H5COONa+CO2+H2O\mathrm{C}_{6}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{COOH} + \mathrm{NaHCO}_{3} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{6}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{COONa} + \mathrm{CO}_{2} + \mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{O}. Option (1) gives the wrong oxidation product for acetophenone; options (2) and (3) take P to be p-tolualdehyde, which the Tollens' clue rules out.

    figure
  59. Question 59 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    List I

    List II

    P) C2H4\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{4}

    I) 3 σ\sigma bonds, 2 π\pi bonds

    Q) C2H2\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{2}

    II) 3 σ\sigma bonds, one lone pair

    R) CH4\mathrm{CH}_{4}

    III) 4 σ\sigma bonds

    S) NH3\mathrm{NH}_{3}

    IV) 5 σ\sigma bonds, 1 π\pi bond

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

    Ethene (C2H4\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{4}) has 4 C-H plus 1 C-C sigma bonds (5 sigma) and 1 pi bond (IV). Ethyne (C2H2\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{2}) has 2 C-H plus 1 C-C sigma (3 sigma) and 2 pi bonds (I). Methane (CH4\mathrm{CH}_{4}) has 4 C-H sigma bonds (III). Ammonia (NH3\mathrm{NH}_{3}) has 3 N-H sigma bonds and one lone pair on nitrogen (II). Hence P-IV, Q-I, R-III, S-II.

  60. Question 60 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The following two reactions give the same foul smelling product Z:

    Two routes to foul-smelling product Z: ethyl chloride with reagent X gives Z; propanamide with Br2/NaOH gives Y, then CHCl3/ethanolic KOH with heat gives Z.

    X and Z, respectively, are:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Amines

    With silver cyanide (AgCN\mathrm{AgCN}) the alkyl halide gives the isocyanide, so ethyl chloride yields foul-smelling ethyl isocyanide, C2H5NC\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{NC} (X = AgCN\mathrm{AgCN}). In the second route, propanamide undergoes Hoffmann bromamide degradation (Br2/NaOH\mathrm{Br}_{2}/\mathrm{NaOH}) to ethylamine, which then gives ethyl isocyanide via the carbylamine reaction (CHCl3\mathrm{CHCl}_{3} + ethanolic KOH\mathrm{KOH}). Both paths converge on Z = C2H5NC\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{NC}. KCN\mathrm{KCN} would give the nitrile (C2H5CN\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{CN}), which is not foul-smelling.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (2) Wrong: KCN\mathrm{KCN} gives nitrile, and nitrile is not the foul-smelling carbylamine product.
    - (3) Wrong: AgCN\mathrm{AgCN} does not give the nitrile.
    - (4) Wrong: KCN\mathrm{KCN} gives nitrile, not isocyanide.

    Both routes converge on ethyl isocyanide (Z): ethyl chloride with AgCN gives C2H5NC; propanamide via Hofmann bromamide (Br2 + NaOH) gives ethylamine, then the carbylamine reaction (CHCl3, ethanolic KOH, heat) gives C2H5NC.
  61. Question 61 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The number of hydrogen atoms present in 5.4 g of urea is: (Given: Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol−160\ \text{g mol}^{-1}; NA=6.022×1023 particles mol−1N_A = 6.022 \times 10^{23}\ \text{particles mol}^{-1})

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

    Moles of urea = 5.4/60 = 0.09 mol. Urea, NH2CONH2\mathrm{NH}_{2}\mathrm{CONH}_{2}, contains 4 hydrogen atoms per molecule. So number of H atoms = 0.09×4×6.022×1023≈2.168×10230.09 \times 4 \times 6.022 \times 10^{23} \approx 2.168 \times 10^{23}. The distractors arise from using the wrong number of H atoms per molecule or a wrong power of ten.

  62. Question 62 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · p-Block Elements (Groups 15-18)

    Both nitrogen and oxygen are period-2 elements lacking accessible d-orbitals, so nitrogen cannot form a dπ\pi-pπ\pi bond with oxygen, making statement D incorrect. Nitrogen does form pπ\pi-pπ\pi multiple bonds (as in N2\mathrm{N}_{2}), the heavier elements P and As have vacant d-orbitals allowing dπ\pi-dπ\pi overlap with transition metals, and P, As, Sb show catenation, so those statements are correct.

  63. Question 63 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Which one of the following is an ambidentate ligand?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Coordination Compounds

    An ambidentate ligand has two different donor atoms and can bind through either one. Thiocyanate (SCN-) can coordinate through sulphur (-SCN) or nitrogen (-NCS), so it is ambidentate. Ethane-1,2-diamine and oxalate are bidentate chelating ligands and ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion (EDTA) is hexadentate, but each of their donor sets is fixed, so they are not ambidentate.

  64. Question 64 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The correct order of increasing metallic character of Na, Be, P, Mg and Si is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

    Metallic character decreases across a period (left to right) and increases down a group, and it is inversely related to electronegativity. Using Pauling electronegativities (Na 0.9 < Mg 1.2 < Be 1.5 < Si 1.8 < P 2.1), metallic character increases in the reverse order: P < Si < Be < Mg < Na.

  65. Question 65 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Match List-I (conversions) with List-II (reagents/conditions) and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    List I

    List II

    a)

    Isopropylbenzene (cumene) → Phenol

    i) (i) Oleum; (ii) NaOH, Δ\Delta; (iii) H+^+

    b) CH3COOH→CH3CH2OH\mathrm{CH}_{3}\mathrm{COOH} \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_{3}\mathrm{CH}_{2}\mathrm{OH}

    ii) (i) O2_2; (ii) H2_2O/H+^+

    c) CH3CH2CH2OH→\mathrm{CH}_{3}\mathrm{CH}_{2}\mathrm{CH}_{2}\mathrm{OH} \rightarrow propan-2-ol (CH3CH(OH)CH3)(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\mathrm{CH}(\mathrm{OH})\mathrm{CH}_{3})

    iii) (i) CH3_3OH, H+^+; (ii) H2_2, catalyst

    d)

    Benzene → Phenol

    iv) (i) conc. H2_2SO4_4, Δ\Delta; (ii) H+^+/H2_2O

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

    Cumene gives phenol by air oxidation (O2\mathrm{O}_{2}) to cumene hydroperoxide then acid hydrolysis (H2O\mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{O}/H+\mathrm{H}^{+}), so A-II. Acetic acid is converted to ethanol by esterification (CH3OH\mathrm{CH}_{3}\mathrm{OH}/H+\mathrm{H}^{+}) followed by reduction (H2\mathrm{H}_{2}/catalyst), so B-III. Propan-1-ol is dehydrated (conc. H2SO4\mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{SO}_{4}, heat) to propene, which on Markovnikov hydration (H+\mathrm{H}^{+}/H2O\mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{O}) gives propan-2-ol, so C-IV. Benzene is converted to phenol by sulphonation (oleum), NaOH fusion, then acidification, so D-I. Hence A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

    figure
  66. Question 66 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · The d- and f-Block Elements

    Cerium (Z = 58) has the configuration [Xe]4f1 5d1 6s2; on going to Ce4+ it loses its outer electrons to reach the especially stable, empty 4f0 (noble-gas-like) configuration, which is why it readily shows the +4 state. The options citing 4f14, radon, or atomic number 61 are factually wrong for cerium.

  67. Question 67 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    In the following reaction sequence, X and Z respectively are:

    Reaction sequence: propan-1-ol with PCl5 gives 1-chloropropane, X and HCl; alcoholic KOH with heat gives Y; Y with HBr and benzoyl peroxide gives Z.
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

    Propan-1-ol reacting with PCl5\mathrm{PCl}_{5} gives 1-chloropropane together with phosphoryl chloride (POCl3\mathrm{POCl}_{3}) and HCl, so X = POCl3\mathrm{POCl}_{3}. Alcoholic KOH dehydrohalogenates 1-chloropropane to propene (Y). Addition of HBr in the presence of a peroxide follows the anti-Markovnikov (peroxide/Kharasch) effect, placing Br on the terminal carbon to give 1-bromopropane, so Z = CH3CH2CH2Br\mathrm{CH}_{3}\mathrm{CH}_{2}\mathrm{CH}_{2}\mathrm{Br}. Hence X = POCl3\mathrm{POCl}_{3}, Z = CH3CH2CH2Br\mathrm{CH}_{3}\mathrm{CH}_{2}\mathrm{CH}_{2}\mathrm{Br}.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (1) Wrong: peroxide effect gives 1-bromopropane, not isopropyl bromide.
    - (3) Wrong: PCl5\mathrm{PCl}_{5} gives POCl3\mathrm{POCl}_{3} (not H3PO3\mathrm{H}_{3}\mathrm{PO}_{3}) and Z is the primary bromide.
    - (4) Wrong: PCl5\mathrm{PCl}_{5} gives POCl3\mathrm{POCl}_{3}, not H3PO3\mathrm{H}_{3}\mathrm{PO}_{3} (H3PO3\mathrm{H}_{3}\mathrm{PO}_{3} comes from PCl3\mathrm{PCl}_{3}).

  68. Question 68 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Match List I (Complex/ion) with List II (Shape/geometry) and choose the correct answer.

    List I

    List II

    P) [Pt(Cl2)(NH3)2][Pt(Cl_2)(NH_3)_2]

    I) Octahedral

    Q) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3[Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3

    II) Trigonal bipyramidal

    R) [NiCl4]2−[NiCl_4]^{2-}

    III) Square planar

    S) [Fe(CO)5][Fe(CO)_5]

    IV) Tetrahedral

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Coordination Compounds

    [PtCl2_{2}(NH3_{3})2_{2}] uses dsp2^{2} hybridisation at Pt2+^{2+} → square planar (III); [Co(NH3_{3})6_{6}]3+^{3+} is d2^{2}sp3^{3} → octahedral (I); [NiCl4_{4}]2−^{2-} has sp3^{3} Ni2+^{2+} with weak-field Cl−^- → tetrahedral (IV); [Fe(CO)5_{5}] is sp3^{3}d/dsp3^{3} → trigonal bipyramidal (II). This gives P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II.

  69. Question 69 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The functional group that can be identified through phthalein dye test is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

    In the phthalein dye test a phenol is heated with phthalic anhydride and concentrated H2_{2}SO4_{4} to form phenolphthalein, which turns pink on addition of NaOH; this confirms a phenolic -OH group. Aldehydes are detected by Tollens'/Fehling's tests, carboxylic acids by effervescence with NaHCO3_{3}, and alcohols by the ceric ammonium nitrate or Lucas tests.

  70. Question 70 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Two products X and Y are formed in the following reaction sequence.

    figure

    The suitable method that can be used for the separation of products X and Y is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

    Friedel-Crafts methylation of benzene gives toluene (W), and nitration then gives o-nitrotoluene (X) and p-nitrotoluene (Y). These isomeric liquids have close but different boiling points (o ≈\approx 222 °C, p ≈\approx 238 °C) and are separated by fractional distillation (under reduced pressure). Sublimation suits solids that vaporise directly, while extraction methods separate a solute between immiscible solvents, which does not apply here.

    figure
  71. Question 71 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Identify the correct statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Statement I: The molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (Molar mass: 60 g mol−1^{-1}) in 75 g of benzene solution is 0.556 m.
    Statement II: The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH (molar mass: 40 g mol−1^{-1}) in 450 mL of solution is 0.278 M at 298 K.
    Statement III: Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water.
    Statement IV: The solubility of gas increases with decrease in pressure.
    Statement V: For a binary mixture of A and B, the number of moles of A and B are nAn_A and nBn_B respectively. The mole fraction of B will be xB=nAnA+nBx_B = \frac{n_A}{n_A + n_B}.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Solutions

    (I) molality = (2.5/60)×(1000/75)≈0.556(2.5/60) \times (1000/75) \approx 0.556 m, correct. (II) molarity = (5/40)×(1000/450)≈0.278(5/40) \times (1000/450) \approx 0.278 M, correct. (III) correct: gas solubility rises as temperature falls, so cold water holds more dissolved O2_{2} and aquatic life is more comfortable. (IV) wrong: by Henry's law gas solubility increases with increasing pressure. (V) wrong: mole fraction of B is nB/(nA+nB)n_B/(n_A + n_B), not nA/(nA+nB)n_A/(n_A + n_B). Hence only I, II and III are correct.

  72. Question 72 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    During Lassaigne's test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

    In Lassaigne's (sodium fusion) test the organic compound is fused with sodium metal, which converts the covalently bonded N, S and halogens into water-soluble ionic sodium salts (NaCN, Na2_{2}S, NaX). These ions are then detected in aqueous extract, so covalent forms are transformed into ionic forms.

  73. Question 73 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is: (Given: Molar mass of Cu = 63 g mol−1^{-1}; 1 F = 96487 C mol−1^{-1})

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Electrochemistry

    Charge passed Q=i t=1.5×(10×60)=900Q = i\,t = 1.5 \times (10\times 60) = 900 C. Deposition follows Cu2++2e−→Cu\mathrm{Cu}^{2+} + 2\mathrm{e}^- \rightarrow \mathrm{Cu}, so mass =E i tF=63×1.5×6002×96487≈0.294= \frac{E\,i\,t}{F} = \frac{63 \times 1.5 \times 600}{2 \times 96487} \approx 0.294 g, i.e. 0.2938 g. The other values arise from using the wrong n-factor or the wrong time.

  74. Question 74 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    At a certain temperature, T (K), during a process, 500 J is absorbed by the system and work of 200 J is done by the system. Then change in internal energy of the system is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Chemical Thermodynamics

    By the first law of thermodynamics, ΔU=q+w\Delta U = q + w. Heat absorbed by the system gives q = +500 J, and work done by the system gives w = -200 J. Therefore ΔU=500−200=300\Delta U = 500 - 200 = 300 J.

  75. Question 75 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    For a certain reaction R → Product, the plot of concentration [R] vs time has a negative slope as shown. The order of reaction is:

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Chemical Kinetics

    A straight-line plot of concentration [R] against time corresponds to a zero-order reaction, for which [R]=[R]0−kt[R] = [R]_0 - kt; the constant (linear) rate of decrease means the rate is independent of concentration and equal to the rate constant k (= -slope). First- and higher-order reactions give curved concentration-time plots, not straight lines.

    figure
  76. Question 76 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Identify the correct statement about ClF3ClF_3 from the following options:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · p-Block Elements (Groups 15-18)

    In ClF3_{3} the central Cl has five electron domains (3 bond pairs + 2 lone pairs) and sp3^{3}d hybridisation, giving a trigonal bipyramidal electron arrangement. The two lone pairs occupy equatorial positions, leaving a T-shaped molecular geometry. Hence ClF3_{3} is T-shaped with two lone pairs on the Cl atom.

    figure

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (2) ClF3_{3} has two, not three, lone pairs on chlorine.
    - (3) Trigonal pyramidal (like NH3_{3}) has 3 bond pairs + 1 lone pair, not the case here.
    - (4) Planar trigonal (like BF3_{3}) has no lone pairs on the central atom.

  77. Question 77 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    In a test tube containing a salt, a few drops of dilute H2SO4H_2SO_4 was added, which gave colourless vapours having the smell of vinegar. The vapours turned the blue litmus paper red. Identify the correct anion from the following:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

    A colourless acidic vapour with the smell of vinegar indicates acetic acid: acetate salts react with dilute H2_{2}SO4_{4} to liberate CH3_{3}COOH (vinegar odour), which turns blue litmus red. Sulphide would give rotten-egg-smelling H2_{2}S, carbonate gives odourless CO2_{2} (which turns lime water milky), and sulphate evolves no gas with dilute H2_{2}SO4_{4}.

  78. Question 78 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    At 298 K, a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of X−X^- and HX, KbK_b for X−X^- is 10−1010^{-10}. What is the pH of this buffer solution?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Equilibrium

    For the conjugate pair, Ka(HX)=KwKb=10−1410−10=10−4K_a(HX) = \frac{K_w}{K_b} = \frac{10^{-14}}{10^{-10}} = 10^{-4}, so pKa = 4. Using Henderson-Hasselbalch, pH=pKa+log⁡[X−][HX]pH = pK_a + \log\frac{[X^-]}{[HX]}; since [X−X^-] = [HX], the log term is zero, giving pH = 4.

  79. Question 79 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Calculate emf of the half cell given below:
    Pt(s)∣H2(g,2atm)∣HCl(aq,0.02M)\mathrm{Pt}(\text{s}) | \mathrm{H}_{2}(\mathrm{g}, 2 \mathrm{atm}) | \mathrm{HCl}(\mathrm{aq}, 0.02 \mathrm{M})
    EH2/H+∘=0E^{\circ}_{H_2/H^+} = 0 V
    (Given: 2.303 RTF=0.059\frac{2.303\,RT}{F} = 0.059, log⁡2=0.3010\log 2 = 0.3010)

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Electrochemistry

    For H2→2H++2e−\mathrm{H}_{2} \rightarrow 2\mathrm{H}^{+} + 2\mathrm{e}^{-}, the Nernst equation gives E=E∘−0.0592log⁡[H+]2pH2E = E^{\circ} - \frac{0.059}{2}\log\frac{[H^+]^2}{p_{H_2}}, with [H+^{+}] = 0.02 M and p(H2_{2}) = 2 atm. So E=0−0.0295log⁡(0.02)22=−0.0295log⁡(2×10−4)=−0.0295(0.301−4)≈+0.109E = 0 - 0.0295\log\frac{(0.02)^2}{2} = -0.0295\log(2\times10^{-4}) = -0.0295(0.301 - 4) \approx +0.109 V.

  80. Question 80 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The calculated 'spin-only' magnetic moment of Ti2+Ti^{2+} (3d23d^2) is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · The d- and f-Block Elements

    The spin-only magnetic moment is μ=n(n+2)\mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)} Bohr magneton (BM), where n is the number of unpaired electrons. Ti2+^{2+} is [Ar]3d2^{2} with 2 unpaired electrons, so μ=2(2+2)=8≈2.84\mu = \sqrt{2(2+2)} = \sqrt{8} \approx 2.84 BM.

  81. Question 81 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · p-Block Elements (Groups 13-14)

    Oxygen shows several oxidation states besides -2: it is -1 in peroxides (H2_{2}O2_{2}), -½ in superoxides, and positive (+2, +1) in fluorides such as OF2_{2} and O2_{2}F2_{2}, so statement (4) is incorrect and is the required answer. The other statements are correct: carbon readily forms pπ\pi-pπ\pi bonds (C=C, C≡C); BCl3_{3} is monomeric (B uses back-bonding) while AlCl3_{3} dimerises to Al2_{2}Cl6_{6}; and catenation decreases down Group 14 as C >> Si > Ge ≈\approx Sn.

  82. Question 82 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    For the given Lewis (resonance) structure of ozone, the correct formal charges on the oxygen atoms numbered 2, 1 and 3 respectively are:

    figure
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

    Formal charge = (valence electrons) −- (non-bonding electrons) −12-\frac{1}{2}(bonding electrons). For the doubly bonded terminal O (atom 2): 6−4−12(4)=06-4-\frac{1}{2}(4)=0; the central O (atom 1): 6−2−12(6)=+16-2-\frac{1}{2}(6)=+1; the singly bonded terminal O (atom 3): 6−6−12(2)=−16-6-\frac{1}{2}(2)=-1. This gives 0, +1, −1-1, matching option (2).

    figure
  83. Question 83 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of sodium hydroxide solution against a standard solution of oxalic acid. The colour change that is observed at an alkaline pH close to the equivalence point during this titration is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Equilibrium

    Phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic medium and turns pink in basic medium. As the solution shifts from acidic toward alkaline near the equivalence point, the observed change is colourless to pink (4). Options mentioning yellow refer to methyl orange, not phenolphthalein.

  84. Question 84 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    When 1 dm3^3 of CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} gas is passed over hot coke, the volume of gaseous mixture after complete reaction at STP becomes 1.4 dm3^3. The composition of the gaseous mixture at STP is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

    The reaction CO2+C(s)→2CO\mathrm{CO}_{2} + \mathrm{C}(\text{s}) \rightarrow 2\mathrm{CO} converts x dm3^3 of CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} into 2x dm3^3 of CO. Total final volume =(1−x)+2x=1+x=1.4=(1-x)+2x = 1+x = 1.4, so x = 0.4 dm3^3. Therefore CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} remaining =1−0.4=0.6=1-0.4=0.6 dm3^3 and CO formed =2×0.4=0.8=2\times0.4=0.8 dm3^3, which is option (2).

  85. Question 85 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The major product Z formed in the following sequence of reactions is:

    Reaction sequence: ethane with Cl2 under UV light gives monochlorinated product X; X with NH3 gives Y; Y with (i) NaNO2/HCl and (ii) H2O gives Z.
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Amines

    Monochlorination of ethane gives chloroethane C2H5Cl\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{Cl} (X). Reaction with NH3\mathrm{NH}_{3} gives ethylamine C2H5NH2\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{NH}_{2} (Y). Treating this primary aliphatic amine with NaNO2/HCl\mathrm{NaNO}_{2}/\mathrm{HCl} forms a highly unstable diazonium salt that reacts with water to release N2\mathrm{N}_{2} and yield ethanol C2H5OH\mathrm{C}_{2}\mathrm{H}_{5}\mathrm{OH} (Z). Hence (3) is correct.

    Ethane is monochlorinated to chloroethane (X); ammonia gives ethylamine (Y); diazotisation with NaNO2/HCl gives an unstable ethyl diazonium chloride which hydrolyses in water to ethanol, N2 and HCl (Z).
  86. Question 86 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Given below is an expression for the rate constant of a first-order reaction occurring at a certain temperature, T (K): ln⁡k=14.34−1.25×104T\ln k = 14.34 - \frac{1.25\times10^4}{T}. The energy of activation in kcal mol−1^{-1} for the reaction is: (Given: k in s−1^{-1}, R = 1.987 cal mol−1^{-1} K−1^{-1})

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Chemical Kinetics

    Comparing with the Arrhenius form ln⁡k=ln⁡A−EaRT\ln k = \ln A - \frac{E_a}{RT}, the slope term gives EaR=1.25×104\frac{E_a}{R}=1.25\times10^4. Thus Ea=1.25×104×1.987≈24837E_a = 1.25\times10^4 \times 1.987 \approx 24837 cal mol−1^{-1} ≈24.84\approx 24.84 kcal mol−1^{-1} (1).

  87. Question 87 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Given below are certain reactions. Identify the reaction for which KP≠KCK_P \neq K_C.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Equilibrium

    Since KP=KC(RT)ΔngK_P = K_C(RT)^{\Delta n_g}, the two are equal only when Δng=0\Delta n_g = 0. For N2+3H2⇌2NH3\mathrm{N}_{2} + 3\mathrm{H}_{2} \rightleftharpoons 2\mathrm{NH}_{3}, Δng=2−4=−2≠0\Delta n_g = 2 - 4 = -2 \neq 0, so KP≠KCK_P \neq K_C (2). The other three reactions have equal moles of gas on both sides (Δng=0\Delta n_g = 0), giving KP=KCK_P = K_C.

  88. Question 88 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

    Cationic size decreases with increasing positive charge and across a period, so among Mg, Mg2+\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}, Al and Al3+\mathrm{Al}^{3+} the largest species is neutral Mg and the smallest is Al3+\mathrm{Al}^{3+}, not Al and Mg2+\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}; hence statement (1) is incorrect and is the answer. The others are correct: element 107 is Unnilseptium, Li and Mg show a diagonal relationship, and Al in the given complex has oxidation state +3 with covalency 6.

  89. Question 89 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    Mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a solution with negative deviation from Raoult's law due to:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Solutions

    An acetone-chloroform mixture shows negative deviation because a new hydrogen bond forms between the chloroform C-H and the carbonyl oxygen of acetone, making the A-B interactions stronger than the A-A and B-B interactions. This lowers the escaping tendency and hence the vapour pressure, so (2) is correct. Increased escaping tendency or repulsive forces would instead cause positive deviation.

    Escaping tendency decreases, ∴\therefore vapour pressure decreases and ∴\therefore boiling point increases.

    figure
  90. Question 90 · Chemistry · +4 / −1

    The number of chlorine atoms present in the organic products X and Y of the following reactions, respectively, are:

    Two reactions of benzene: with 6Cl2 over anhydrous AlCl3 in the dark and cold gives product X; with 3Cl2 under UV light at 500 K gives product Y.
    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Hydrocarbons

    With anhydrous AlCl3\mathrm{AlCl}_{3} in the dark and cold, benzene undergoes electrophilic substitution to hexachlorobenzene C6Cl6\mathrm{C}_{6}\mathrm{Cl}_{6} (X), which contains 6 chlorine atoms. Under ultraviolet (UV) light at 500 K, benzene adds three Cl2\mathrm{Cl}_{2} molecules to give benzene hexachloride C6H6Cl6\mathrm{C}_{6}\mathrm{H}_{6}\mathrm{Cl}_{6} (Y), also containing 6 chlorine atoms. So both products carry 6 chlorine atoms, matching option (3).

    figure
  91. Question 91 · Biology · +4 / −1

    In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Morphology of Flowering Plants

    Root hairs are fine, thread-like unicellular outgrowths of epidermal cells that develop in the region of maturation (differentiation), where cells have fully elongated and differentiated. Hence option (4) is correct. The root cap, meristematic zone and elongation zone lie nearer the root tip than this region and do not bear root hairs.

  92. Question 92 · Biology · +4 / −1

    In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Plant Kingdom

    Naked ovules that are not enclosed within an ovary and remain exposed both before and after fertilisation are the defining feature of gymnosperms. Among the choices, Pinus is a gymnosperm (2). Funaria is a moss (bryophyte), Selaginella is a pteridophyte, and Wolffia is a flowering angiosperm whose ovules are enclosed in an ovary.

  93. Question 93 · Biology · +4 / −1

    In the lac operon, the z gene codes for:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Molecular Basis of Inheritance

    In the lac operon the structural gene z codes for beta-galactosidase, the enzyme that hydrolyses lactose into glucose and galactose. Hence (3) is correct. The y gene codes for permease, the a gene for transacetylase, and the separate regulatory i gene codes for the repressor protein.

  94. Question 94 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Biodiversity and Conservation

    Bioprospecting is the exploration of molecular, genetic and species-level biodiversity to find products and processes of economic value (such as new drugs and useful genes). Hence (3) is correct. Biofortification improves the nutrient content of crops, bioremediation uses organisms to remove pollutants, and biomagnification is the increasing concentration of a toxicant along a food chain.

  95. Question 95 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    List I

    List II

    P) Genetically modified organism

    I) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

    Q) Thermostable DNA polymerase

    II) Bt cotton

    R) Ti plasmid

    III) Thermus aquaticus

    S) pBR322

    IV) Escherichia coli

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) cotton is a classic genetically modified organism (P-II); the thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR)) is isolated from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus (Q-III); the Ti plasmid is derived from Agrobacterium tumefaciens (R-I); and plasmid constructed by Bolivar and Rodriguez, number 322 (pBR322) is a cloning vector of Escherichia coli (S-IV). This gives P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV.

  96. Question 96 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    List I

    List II

    P) Productivity

    I) Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses

    Q) Net primary productivity

    II) Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers

    R) Gross primary productivity

    III) Rate of biomass production

    S) Secondary productivity

    IV) Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Ecosystem

    Productivity is the rate of biomass production ; net primary productivity equals gross primary productivity minus respiration losses ; gross primary productivity is the rate of organic matter production during photosynthesis ; and secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers . This matches P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II.

  97. Question 97 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Biodiversity and Conservation

    The current, sixth episode of mass extinction is estimated to be 100 to 1000 times faster than the natural (pre-human) background rate, largely because of human activities. Options stating the rate is zero or far lower are false, and the '10 times' figure greatly understates the accepted estimate.

  98. Question 98 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Biomolecules

    The alpha-helix is a right-handed coiling of the polypeptide backbone stabilised by hydrogen bonds and is the hallmark of the secondary structure of proteins. Primary structure is the linear amino-acid sequence, tertiary structure is the folded three-dimensional shape, and quaternary structure results from the assembly of more than one polypeptide chain.

  99. Question 99 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is :

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Anatomy of Flowering Plants

    Bulliform cells are large, empty, colourless epidermal cells in grass leaves. Under water stress they lose turgor and become flaccid, making the leaf roll or fold inward, which reduces the exposed surface area and thus minimizes transpirational water loss.

  100. Question 100 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction :

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Each PCR cycle proceeds as denaturation (heat separates the two DNA strands), then annealing (primers bind to the single-stranded templates), then extension (DNA polymerase synthesises the new strands). Hence the correct order is Denaturation, then Annealing, then Extension.

  101. Question 101 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II

    List I (Phase of cell cycle)

    List II (Activity)

    P) G1G_1 phase

    I) Actual cell division occurs

    Q) S phase

    II) Cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA

    R) G2G_2 phase

    III) Synthesis of DNA occurs and the amount of DNA per cell doubles

    S) M phase

    IV) Proteins are synthesized while cell growth continues

    choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Cell Cycle and Cell Division

    In G1G_1 phase the cell is metabolically active and grows but does not replicate DNA; in S phase DNA is synthesised and the DNA per cell doubles; in G2G_2 phase proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis while growth continues; and in M phase the actual cell division takes place. This gives P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I.

  102. Question 102 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following statements are correct? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Statement I: The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss.
    Statement II: Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans.
    Statement III: The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake.
    Statement IV: Water hyacinth is an invasive species.
    Statement V: When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Biodiversity and Conservation

    Statements I (Amazon clearing = habitat loss), II (Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon lost to over-exploitation) and IV (water hyacinth is invasive) are correct. III is wrong because the introduced Nile perch drove more than 200 cichlid species to extinction, and V is wrong because co-extinction affects the species associated with an extinct one. Correct set: I, II and IV.

  103. Question 103 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit?

    Statement I: A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions : promoter, structural gene and terminator.
    Statement II: The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end of the structural gene.
    Statement III: The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase.
    Statement IV: The promoter defines the template and coding strands.
    Statement V: The terminator is located towards the 3'-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Molecular Basis of Inheritance

    A transcription unit is defined by a promoter, a structural gene and a terminator (Statement I); the promoter lies towards the 5'-end of the structural gene (Statement II), provides the binding site for RNA polymerase (Statement III), and by its position determines which strand is template and which is coding (Statement IV). The terminator lies towards the 3'-end of the coding strand and usually ends transcription (Statement V). All five statements are correct.

  104. Question 104 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which one of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · The Living World

    In a binomial name, the genus comes first with an initial capital, and the specific epithet comes second with an initial lowercase letter. The words are Latinised and appear in italics in print or are separately underlined by hand. A claim that the second word denotes the genus reverses their roles and is false.

  105. Question 105 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    List I

    List II

    P) Decomposition

    I) Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous colloidal substance

    Q) Detritus

    II) Release of inorganic nutrients by the activity of microbes in soil

    R) Mineralisation

    III) Breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances.

    S) Humification

    IV) Dead remains of plants and animals including fecal matter

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Ecosystem

    Decomposition is the breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances; detritus is the dead remains of plants and animals including faecal matter; mineralisation is the release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activity in soil; and humification is the accumulation of the dark-coloured amorphous colloidal humus. This gives P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I.

  106. Question 106 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Cell: The Unit of Life

    The nucleolus is a non-membrane-bound region within the nucleus and is the site of active ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and assembly of ribosomal subunits. The centrosome organises spindle fibres, chromatin is the DNA-protein complex carrying genes, and the kinetochore is the protein plate on the centromere for spindle-fibre attachment.

  107. Question 107 · Biology · +4 / −1

    2( C51H98C6)+145 O2→102 CO2+98 H2O+energy2(\,\mathrm{C}_{51}\mathrm{H}_{98}\mathrm{C}_{6}) + 145\,\mathrm{O}_{2} \rightarrow 102\,\mathrm{CO}_{2} + 98\,\mathrm{H}_{2}\mathrm{O} + \text{energy}

    The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration, as per the above equation would be :

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Respiration in Plants

    The respiratory quotient is the ratio of the volume of CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} evolved to the volume of O2\mathrm{O}_{2} consumed. From the equation, RQ=102145≈0.7RQ = \frac{102}{145} \approx 0.7, which lies between 0.5 and 0.95, the range typical when fats are respired. It is not 1.0 (which is for carbohydrates) nor greater than 1.

  108. Question 108 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II

    List I

    List II

    P) Incomplete dominance

    I) Human skin colour

    Q) Co-dominance

    II) Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum sp.

    R) Pleiotropy

    III) Phenylketonuria disease in humans

    S) Polygenic inheritance

    IV) ABO blood groups

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    Incomplete dominance is shown by flower colour in Antirrhinum, where the heterozygote is intermediate; co-dominance is illustrated by ABO blood groups, where alleles IAI^A and IBI^B are both expressed; pleiotropy is exemplified by phenylketonuria, where one gene affects several traits; and polygenic inheritance controls human skin colour. This gives P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I.

  109. Question 109 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in the correct sequence

    Statement I: Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases.
    Statement II: Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe.
    Statement III: Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes.
    Statement IV: Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
    Statement V: Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Molecular Basis of Inheritance

    (Statement I)DNA fingerprinting proceeds by isolating DNA and digesting it with restriction enzymes,
    (Statement V)separating the fragments by gel electrophoresis according to size,
    (Statement III) blotting them onto a synthetic nylon/nitrocellulose membrane,
    (Statement II)hybridising with a labelled variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR) probe,
    and
    (Statement IV) finally detecting the bound probe by autoradiography.

    This gives the order I, V, III, II, IV.

  110. Question 110 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix?

    Statement I: Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer.
    Statement II: Histones are negatively charged basic proteins.
    Statement III: Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine.
    Statement IV: The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome.
    Statement V: The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Molecular Basis of Inheritance

    Eight histone molecules assemble into a histone octamer (I correct), and histones are positively charged basic proteins rich in lysine and arginine (III correct), so Statement II is wrong. It is the negatively charged DNA (not positively charged) that wraps around the octamer to form a nucleosome, so Statement IV is wrong. Higher-order packaging needs additional non-histone chromosomal (NHC) proteins (V correct). Hence I, III and V only.

  111. Question 111 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following and choose the answer from the options given below:

    Statement I: The water splitting complex is associated with PS I.
    Statement II: C4\mathrm{C}_{4} plants use the C3\mathrm{C}_{3} pathway of CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway.
    Statement III: In C4\mathrm{C}_{4} plants, photorespiration does not occur.
    Statement IV: C3\mathrm{C}_{3} plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy.
    Statement V: ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

    The water-splitting (oxygen-evolving) complex lies on the inner side of the membrane and is associated with Photosystem II, not PS I, so statement I is incorrect. Kranz anatomy is a feature of C4\mathrm{C}_{4} plants, not C3\mathrm{C}_{3} plants, so statement IV is incorrect. Statements II, III and V are correct. Hence the incorrect statements are I and IV only.

  112. Question 112 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridisation in the correct sequence
    Statement I: Digestion of cell walls.
    Statement II: Isolation of naked protoplasts.
    Statement III: Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast.
    Statement IV: Isolation of single cells from two different varieties of plants.
    Statement V: Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant.

    choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Somatic hybridisation starts by isolating single cells from two different plant varieties (Statement IV), digesting their cell walls with enzymes (Statement I) to release naked protoplasts (Statement II), fusing the protoplasts to form a hybrid protoplast (Statement III), and finally growing it to regenerate a new plant (Statement V). Hence the correct sequence is IV, I, II, III, V.

  113. Question 113 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    List I

    List II

    P) Conjunctive tissue

    I) Specialised cells in the vicinity of guard cells

    Q) Casparian strips

    II) Endodermal cells rich in starch

    R) Subsidiary cells

    III) Tissue between xylem and phloem

    S) Starch sheath

    IV) Endodermal cells with suberin deposition

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Anatomy of Flowering Plants

    Conjunctive tissue is the parenchyma lying between xylem and phloem (III). Casparian strips are suberin deposits on the walls of endodermal cells (IV). Subsidiary cells are specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells (I). The starch sheath is the innermost cortical (endodermal) layer whose cells are rich in starch (II). Hence P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II.

  114. Question 114 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Plant Growth and Development

    The elongation phase is characterised by increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and deposition of new cell wall material. A large, conspicuous nucleus with dense cytoplasm is a feature of the meristematic (dividing) phase, not the elongation phase, so it is the exception.

  115. Question 115 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II

    List I (Growth Regulator)

    List II (Function/Effect)

    P) 2,4-D

    I) Brewing industry

    Q) GA3_3

    II) Stimulation of stomatal closure

    R) Kinetin

    III) Herbicide

    S) ABA

    IV) Nutrient mobilisation

    choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Plant Growth and Development

    2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D) is a synthetic auxin used as a selective herbicide against dicot weeds (P - III).
    GA3_3 is used in the malting/brewing industry to speed up the process (Q-I).
    Kinetin, a cytokinin, promotes nutrient mobilisation and delays senescence (R-IV).
    Abscisic acid (ABA),
    the stress hormone, promotes stomatal closure during water stress (S-II).
    Hence P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II.

  116. Question 116 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

    In the Calvin cycle, CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} is fixed onto ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) by RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCO), the most abundant enzyme in the biosphere. PEP carboxylase catalyses the primary CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} fixation in mesophyll cells of C4\mathrm{C}_{4}/CAM plants but not the Calvin-cycle carboxylation, while hexokinase and carboxypeptidase have unrelated functions.

  117. Question 117 · Biology · +4 / −1

    How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

    Fixing one CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} in the Calvin cycle consumes 3 adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and 2 reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). Synthesising one glucose requires the fixation of 6 CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} (six turns of the cycle), so the total need is 6×3=186 \times 3 = 18 ATP and 6×2=126 \times 2 = 12 NADPH.

  118. Question 118 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following floral formula is the correct floral formula of the Solanaceae family?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Morphology of Flowering Plants

    Solanaceae flowers are actinomorphic (⊕) and bisexual (⚥) with a gamosepalous calyx K(5), a gamopetalous corolla C(5), five epipetalous stamens A5 (the arc linking corolla to androecium shows stamens attached to the corolla) and a bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary G(2). Only option (2) shows both the fused calyx/corolla and the epipetalous condition, so it is the correct floral formula.

    figure
  119. Question 119 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following is an in-situ conservation method?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Biodiversity and Conservation

    in-situ conservation protects species within their natural habitat; sacred groves are forest patches traditionally protected by local communities and are a classic in-situ method. Wildlife safari parks, botanical gardens and seed banks conserve organisms away from their natural habitat and are therefore ex-situ methods.

  120. Question 120 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases?

    Statement I: They are called molecular scissors.
    Statement II: These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E.coli .
    Statement III: They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites.
    Statement IV: They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments.
    Statement V: They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.

    Choose the answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Restriction endonucleases cut DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome (between the same two bases on the two strands), not exactly at the centre, so statement III is untrue. They cut within the DNA; removing nucleotides from the ends is the job of exonucleases, so statement IV is also untrue. Statements I, II and V correctly describe them. Hence III and IV only are not true.

  121. Question 121 · Biology · +4 / −1

    In racemose inflorescence, _________.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Morphology of Flowering Plants

    In a racemose inflorescence the main axis keeps growing (unlimited growth) and does not end in a flower; the flowers are borne laterally in acropetal succession, with older flowers at the base and younger ones toward the tip. Termination of the main axis in a flower and limited growth are features of the cymose inflorescence.

  122. Question 122 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis.

    Statement I: Microspore tetrads
    Statement II: Sporogenous tissue
    Statement III: Pollen grains
    Statement IV: Pollen mother cells

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

    Microsporogenesis begins with sporogenous tissue (Statement II), whose cells become pollen mother cells (Statement IV). Each pollen mother cell undergoes meiosis to form microspore tetrads (Statement I), which then separate into individual microspores that mature into pollen grains (Statement III). Hence the order is II, IV, I, III.

  123. Question 123 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Identify the correct statements about biomolecules.

    Statement I: Lipids are generally water soluble.
    Statement II: Proteins are polypeptides.
    Statement III: Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars.
    Statement IV: Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines.
    Statement V: Almost all enzymes are proteins.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Biomolecules

    Proteins are polypeptides (Statement II), polysaccharides are long chains of monosaccharides (Statement III), and almost all enzymes are proteins (Statement V), so these are correct. Statement I is wrong because lipids are generally hydrophobic and water-insoluble; Statement IV is wrong because adenine and guanine are substituted purines, not pyrimidines.

  124. Question 124 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees?

    Statement I: An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg, develops as a female (queen or worker).
    Statement II: An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis.
    Statement III: A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female.
    Statement IV: Males produce sperms by meiosis.
    Statement V: Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    Honeybees use a haplodiploid system (Statement V). A fertilised egg (diploid) becomes a female, queen or worker (Statement I); an unfertilised egg develops parthenogenetically into a haploid male (Statement II); the haploid male therefore has half the chromosome number of the diploid female (Statement III). Statement IV is false because haploid males cannot undergo normal reductional meiosis and instead form sperm by a modified mitosis, so the correct set is I, II, III and V.

  125. Question 125 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Plant Growth and Development

    Plasticity is the ability of plants to follow different developmental pathways and form different structures in response to environment or life phase; heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur is a classic example. Dedifferentiation and redifferentiation describe changes in the meristematic state of cells, and elasticity is not the relevant developmental term.

  126. Question 126 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids?

    Statement I: They are substituted methanes.
    Statement II: Serine is an aromatic amino acid.
    Statement III: Valine is a neutral amino acid.
    Statement IV: Lysine is an acidic amino acid.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Biomolecules

    Amino acids are substituted methanes because the alpha carbon carries H\mathrm{H}, COOH\mathrm{COOH}, NH2\mathrm{NH}_{2} and an R group (I correct), and valine is a neutral (non-polar) amino acid (III correct). Statement II is wrong since serine has a hydroxyl side chain, making it an alcoholic (not aromatic) amino acid; Statement IV is wrong because lysine has an extra amino group, making it a basic (not acidic) amino acid. Hence I and III.

  127. Question 127 · Biology · +4 / −1

    "The Evil Quartet" of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Biodiversity and Conservation

    The Evil Quartet names the four major drivers of biodiversity loss: habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation, alien (invasive) species invasions, and co-extinctions. Only option (3) lists exactly these; the others wrongly substitute air, water or soil pollution, which are not part of the quartet.

  128. Question 128 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II

    List I (Process)

    List II (Location)

    P) Glycolysis

    I) Inner mitochondrial membrane

    Q) ETS

    II) Mitochondrial matrix

    R) Accumulation of protons

    III) Cytoplasm

    S) Krebs' cycle

    IV) Intermembrane space

    choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Respiration in Plants

    Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm (P-III), the electron transport system operates on the inner mitochondrial membrane (Q-I), protons accumulate in the intermembrane space during chemiosmosis (R-IV), and the Krebs' cycle runs in the mitochondrial matrix (S-II). This gives P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II.

  129. Question 129 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which one of the following is a triploid cell?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

    The primary endosperm cell forms during double fertilisation when a haploid male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary (fusion) nucleus, making it triploid (3n). Synergids are haploid, the zygote is diploid, and the central cell before fusion carries two haploid polar nuclei.

  130. Question 130 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

    Xenogamy is cross-pollination in which pollen is transferred to the stigma of a flower on a genetically different plant, so it alone brings genetically different pollen. Autogamy (same flower) and geitonogamy (different flower of the same plant) deliver genetically identical pollen, and cleistogamous flowers are obligately autogamous.

  131. Question 131 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II :

    List I (Placentation)

    List II (Example)

    P) Marginal

    I) Mustard

    Q) Axile

    II) Pea

    R) Parietal

    III) Marigold

    S) Basal

    IV) Lemon

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Morphology of Flowering Plants

    Marginal placentation is seen in pea (P-II), axile in lemon/citrus (Q-IV), parietal in mustard (R-I), and basal in marigold (S-III). This yields P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III.

  132. Question 132 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification proposed By R.H. Whittaker (1969) included.

    Statement I: Cell structure
    Statement II: Body organization
    Statement III: Presence of flagellum
    Statement IV: Reproduction
    Statement V: Phylogenetic relationships

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Biological Classification

    Whittaker's five kingdom classification was based on cell structure (Statement I), body organisation (Statement II), mode of nutrition, reproduction (Statement IV) and phylogenetic relationships (Statement V). Presence of a flagellum (Statement III) was not one of the main criteria, so the correct set is I, II, IV and V.

  133. Question 133 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II :

    List I

    List II

    P) Trypsin

    I) Intercellular ground substance

    Q) Morphine

    II) Lectin

    R) Concanavalin A

    III) Enzyme

    S) Collagen

    IV) Alkaloid

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Biomolecules

    Trypsin is a proteolytic enzyme (P-III), morphine is an alkaloid secondary metabolite (Q-IV), concanavalin A is a lectin (R-II), and collagen acts as an intercellular ground substance (S-I). This gives P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I.

  134. Question 134 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization?

    Statement I: The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors.
    Statement II: The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis.
    Statement III: The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light.
    Statement IV: The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    Restriction enzymes act as molecular scissors that cut DNA (I correct), and the resulting fragments separate by size on an agarose gel during electrophoresis, with smaller fragments migrating farther (II correct). Statement III is wrong because DNA cannot be seen without staining, and Statement IV is wrong because ethidium-bromide-stained DNA is visualised under ultraviolet (UV) light, not in visible light. Hence I and II.

  135. Question 135 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a point mutation (GAG to GUG) that substitutes glutamic acid with valine at the sixth position of the beta-globin chain. Thalassemia results from reduced or absent globin-chain synthesis, phenylketonuria from a defect in phenylalanine metabolism, and haemophilia is an X-linked clotting disorder.

  136. Question 136 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II:

    List I

    List II

    P) Cortisol

    I) Stimulates the formation of alveoli in mammary glands

    Q) Aldosterone

    II) Produces anti-inflammatory reactions

    R) Cholecystokinin

    III) Stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubule

    S) Progesterone

    IV) Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Chemical Coordination and Integration

    Cortisol (a glucocorticoid) produces anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses immune responses (II). Aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid, stimulates reabsorption of Na+\mathrm{Na}^{+} and water from the renal tubules (III). Cholecystokinin from the intestinal mucosa stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice (IV). Progesterone acts on the mammary glands to stimulate formation of alveoli (I). Thus P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I.

  137. Question 137 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Arrange the following events occurring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order:

    Statement I: Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular filtration rate
    Statement II: Reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone
    Statement III: Fall in Glomerular filtration rate
    Statement IV: Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone.
    Statement V: Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Excretory Products and their Elimination

    A fall in glomerular filtration rate/blood flow (Statement III) activates the juxta glomerular (JG) cells to release renin, which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and then angiotensin II (Statement V). Angiotensin II acts as a vasoconstrictor and stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone (Statement IV). Aldosterone then promotes reabsorption of Na+\mathrm{Na}^{+} and water from the distal tubule (Statement II), which raises blood pressure and GFR (Statement I). Correct order: III, V, IV, II, I.

  138. Question 138 · Biology · +4 / −1

    In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order.

    Statement I: Diffusion of O2\mathrm{O}_{2} and CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} between blood and tissues
    Statement II: Diffusion of O2\mathrm{O}_{2} and CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} across alveolar membrane
    Statement III: Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} rich alveolar air is released out
    Statement IV: Cellular respiration
    Statement V: Transport of gases by the blood

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Breathing and Exchange of Gases

    Respiration begins with pulmonary ventilation drawing in atmospheric air and expelling CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2}-rich alveolar air (Statement III), followed by diffusion of gases across the alveolar membrane (Statement II). Gases are then transported by the blood (Statement V), diffuse between blood and tissues (Statement I), and finally the cells utilise O2\mathrm{O}_{2} in cellular respiration releasing CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} (Statement IV). The correct order is III, II, V, I, IV.

  139. Question 139 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The following are the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Arrange the stages in the proper order.

    Statement I: The parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells.
    Statement II: The parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into blood.
    Statement III: Gametocytes develop in RBCs.
    Statement IV: Sporozoites reach the liver through the blood.
    Statement V: Female mosquito injects sporozoites into humans during bite.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Human Health and Disease

    Infection begins when a female Anopheles mosquito injects sporozoites into the human during a bite (Statement V).
    Sporozoites travel through the blood to the liver (Statement IV).
    multiply asexually in liver cells and burst out into the blood (Statement II).
    then invade and multiply asexually in red blood cells (RBCs), rupturing them (Statement I).
    Finally gametocytes develop in the RBCs (Statement III) to be taken up by the mosquito.

    Correct order: V, IV, II, I, III.

  140. Question 140 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E. coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

    In plasmid constructed by Bolivar and Rodriguez, number 322 (pBR322) the BamHI recognition site lies within the tetracycline-resistance gene (tetR). Ligating foreign DNA at this site disrupts the tetR gene, so the recombinant plasmid loses tetracycline resistance (insertional inactivation) while retaining ampicillin resistance. Hence only tetracycline resistance is lost.

  141. Question 141 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes:

    Image

    Identify the enzyme class 'E' from the following options:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Biomolecules

    Lyases catalyse the removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis, leaving behind double bonds. The reaction shown removes the X and Y groups (as X-Y) and generates a C=C double bond, which is characteristic of lyase activity. Transferases move a group between substrates, isomerases interconvert isomers, and ligases join two molecules together, none of which fit this reaction.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (1) Transferases transfer a functional group between a pair of substrates, not create a double bond.
    - (2) Isomerases interconvert optical, geometric or positional isomers.
    - (4) Ligases link two compounds together, the opposite of this elimination.

  142. Question 142 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on __________.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Neural Control and Coordination

    At a chemical synapse, the neurotransmitter is released from the pre-synaptic neuron into the synaptic cleft and binds to specific receptors located on the post-synaptic membrane, opening ion channels and generating a new potential. Therefore the neurotransmitter receptors are present on the post-synaptic membrane, not on the pre-synaptic membrane, Schwann cell, or myelin sheath.

  143. Question 143 · Biology · +4 / −1

    What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood group, respectively?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    A heterozygous type-A parent is IAiI^A i and a heterozygous type-B parent is IBiI^B i. Their cross gives offspring IAIBI^A I^B (AB), IAiI^A i (A), IBiI^B i (B) and iiii (O) in a 1:1:1:1 ratio. Only the iiii genotype is blood group O, giving a probability of 1 in 4, i.e. 25%.

    figure

    Why the other options are wrong:

    - (2) Since both parents carry the recessive i allele, an O child is possible.
    - (3) 75% would be the chance of a non-O child, not an O child.
    - (4) 50% does not match the 1:1:1:1 offspring ratio for this cross.

  144. Question 144 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List I (Respiratory Volume)

    List II (Capacity in mL)

    P) ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume)

    I) 2500 - 3000 mL

    Q) RV (Residual Volume)

    II) 500 mL

    R) IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)

    III) 1000 - 1100 mL

    S) TV (Tidal Volume)

    IV) 1100 - 1200 mL

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Breathing and Exchange of Gases

    Standard respiratory values: Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) is about 1000-1100 mL (III), Residual Volume (RV) is about 1100-1200 mL (IV), Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) is about 2500-3000 mL (I), and Tidal Volume (TV) is about 500 mL (II). Hence P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II.

  145. Question 145 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Evolution

    Convergent evolution produces analogous structures in unrelated lineages performing similar functions, as with flippers of penguins and dolphins, eyes of octopuses and mammals, and wings of butterflies and birds. The forelimbs of whales and bats, however, share the same basic skeletal plan inherited from a common ancestor; they are homologous structures illustrating divergent evolution. Therefore the whale-and-bat forelimbs are the exception.

  146. Question 146 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of

    Statement I: Bulging eyes
    Statement II: Vocal sacs
    Statement III: Webbed digits in feet
    Statement IV: Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs
    Statement V: Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Structural Organisation in Animals

    Male frogs are distinguished from females by two secondary sexual characters: vocal sacs (used to amplify croaking during the breeding season) and a copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs (to grip the female during amplexus). Bulging eyes, webbed digits, and olive-green skin with dark spots are common to both sexes. Hence only II and IV.

  147. Question 147 · Biology · +4 / −1

    A group of researchers procured some fish like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed: A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage. B. Ectoparasitic; as they were found attached on fish skin with their circular sucking mouth. C. Paired fins and scales were absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present.

    Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Animal Kingdom

    Petromyzon (lamprey) is a cyclostome with a cartilaginous endoskeleton, circular suctorial mouth, no scales or paired fins, and seven pairs of gill slits. It is ectoparasitic on fishes.

    Scoliodon and Exocoetus are free-living fishes with paired fins, while Branchiostoma is a cephalochordate lacking the cyclostome-type suctorial mouth and parasitic habit.

    These features identify Petromyzon.

  148. Question 148 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II with respect to chronology of evolution of life forms

    List I

    List II

    P) About 65 mya

    I) Jawless fish probably evolved

    Q) About 500 mya

    II) The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth

    R) About 350 mya

    III) Seaweeds and few plants probably existed

    S) About 320 mya

    IV) Invertebrates were formed and became active

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Evolution

    Along the geological timeline: about 65 mya the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth (II); about 500 mya invertebrates were formed and became active (IV); about 350 mya jawless fishes probably evolved (I); and about 320 mya seaweeds and a few plants probably existed (III). This gives P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III.

  149. Question 149 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List I and List II

    List I

    List II

    P) Progestasert

    I) Barrier made of rubber used by females

    Q) Multiload 375

    II) Oral contraceptive

    R) Diaphragm

    III) Hormone releasing IUD

    S) Saheli

    IV) Copper releasing IUD

    choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Reproductive Health

    Progestasert is a hormone-releasing intra uterine device (IUD) (P-III), Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD (Q-IV), the diaphragm is a rubber barrier device used by females (R-I), and Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill (S-II). This matching corresponds to option (1).

  150. Question 150 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The WBC count of a person's blood sample is 8000/cu mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Body Fluids and Circulation

    Eosinophils make up roughly 2-3% of total white blood cells (WBCs), so in 8000/cu mm that is about 160-240/cu mm. Lymphocytes make up about 20-25%, giving about 1600-2000/cu mm. Only option (2) provides both correct ranges.

  151. Question 151 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List I (Drug) with List II (Effect) and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    List I

    List II

    P) Nicotine

    I) Causes sense of euphoria and increased energy

    Q) Morphine

    II) Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines into blood circulation

    R) Heroin

    III) Effective sedative and painkiller

    S) Cocaine

    IV) A depressant; slows down body function

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Human Health and Disease

    Nicotine stimulates the adrenal gland to secrete catecholamines (P-II), morphine is an effective sedative and painkiller (Q-III), heroin is a depressant that slows body functions (R-IV), and cocaine produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy (S-I). This gives P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I, which is option (3).

  152. Question 152 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The human protein named α\alpha-1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of ______.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Biotechnology and its Applications

    According to NCERT, α\alpha-1-antitrypsin produced from transgenic animals is used to treat emphysema, a lung disorder. Alzheimer's disease, rheumatoid arthritis and cystic fibrosis are conditions for which transgenic animal models are created for study, not treated by this protein.

  153. Question 153 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Animal Kingdom

    Osteichthyes are the bony fishes. Flying fish (Exocoetus), angel fish (Pterophyllum) and fighting fish (Betta) are all bony fishes. The other sets include molluscs (cuttlefish), cyclostomes (hagfish), an echinoderm (starfish) or cartilaginous fishes (saw fish, dog fish), none of which are Osteichthyes.

  154. Question 154 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Select the incorrect statements from the following and choose the answer from the options given below.

    Statement I: Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete.
    Statement II: Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms.
    Statement III: Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes.
    Statement IV: Notochord is persistent throughout life in the class Chondrichthyes.
    Statement V: Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Animal Kingdom

    Statement II is wrong because adult echinoderms show radial symmetry (only their larvae are bilaterally symmetrical), and statement V is wrong because reptiles are poikilothermic (cold-blooded) and cannot maintain a constant body temperature. Statements I, III and IV are correct, so the incorrect pair is II and V, which is option (2).

  155. Question 155 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are ______.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Cell: The Unit of Life

    Ribosomes lack a surrounding membrane and are present in both prokaryotic (70S) and eukaryotic (80S) cells. Lysosomes and mitochondria are membrane-bound and absent in prokaryotes, while the centrosome is found only in animal (eukaryotic) cells, so only ribosomes fit.

  156. Question 156 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Organisms and Populations

    The Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth equation is dNdt=rN(K−NK)\frac{dN}{dt}=rN\left(\frac{K-N}{K}\right), where K is the carrying capacity, r is the intrinsic rate of natural increase and N is the population density at time t. The term (K-N)/K represents environmental resistance, so option (2) is correct.

  157. Question 157 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Select the incorrect statement with reference to Rh grouping :

    Statement I: Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with Rh-ve blood and mother with Rh+ve blood.
    Statement II: Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings.
    Statement III: Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched.
    Statement IV: Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is Rh-ve and the foetus is Rh+ve.
    Statement V: Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child.

    Choose the answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Body Fluids and Circulation

    Erythroblastosis foetalis can develop when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive foetus and becomes sensitised to the Rh antigen. In the NCERT account, anti-Rh antibodies are given immediately after delivery of the first child to prevent the disease in later pregnancies. Statement I reverses the mother–foetus Rh types, and Statement V gives the wrong timing; these are the two incorrect statements.

  158. Question 158 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II

    List I (Bioactive molecules)

    List II (Importance)

    P) Streptokinase

    I) Immunosuppressive agent

    Q) Statins

    II) Removal of clots from the blood vessels

    R) Lipases

    III) Blood cholesterol-lowering agent

    S) Cyclosporin A

    IV) Detergent formulations

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Microbes in Human Welfare

    Streptokinase is a clot buster that removes clots from blood vessels (P-II), statins are blood cholesterol-lowering agents (Q-III), lipases are used in detergent formulations (R-IV), and cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressive agent used in organ transplants (S-I). This gives P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I, which is option (4).

  159. Question 159 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    List I

    List II

    P) Molluscs

    I) Pulmonary respiration only

    Q) Reptiles

    II) Branchial respiration

    R) Adult amphibians

    III) Cellular respiration

    S) Amoeba

    IV) Pulmonary and cutaneous respiration

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Animal Kingdom

    Molluscs respire through gills, i.e. branchial respiration (P-II), reptiles breathe only through lungs, i.e. pulmonary respiration (Q-I), adult amphibians use both lungs and moist skin, i.e. pulmonary and cutaneous respiration (R-IV), and Amoeba depends on cellular respiration by simple diffusion (S-III). This matches option (1).

  160. Question 160 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ______.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    In sickle cell anaemia the sixth codon of the β\beta-globin gene changes from GAG to GUG, so glutamic acid is replaced by valine. This substitution makes haemoglobin polymerize at low oxygen tension and distorts the red blood cell (RBC) into a sickle shape, so the mutant codon is GUG.

  161. Question 161 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Statement I: A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre.
    Statement II: The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of Ca++ into sarcoplasm.
    Statement III: Increase in Ca++ inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges.
    Statement IV: Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge.
    Statement V: Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Locomotion and Movement

    Statements I, II, IV and V correctly describe excitation-contraction coupling in muscle. Statement III is wrong because a rise in Ca++ actually activates the actin by unmasking its binding sites (allowing cross-bridge formation) rather than inactivating actin. Hence the correct set is I, II, IV and V, which is option (4).

  162. Question 162 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton? Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Statement I: Human skull is monocondylic.
    Statement II: The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint.
    Statement III: In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven.
    Statement IV: All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic.
    Statement V: The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Locomotion and Movement

    The human skull is dicondylic (two occipital condyles), so I is wrong, and all human ribs are bicephalic (not just those except the last two pairs), so IV is wrong. Statements II (cartilaginous inter-vertebral joints), III (seven cervical vertebrae) and V (occipital bone articulating with the atlas) are correct, giving option (2).

  163. Question 163 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions to produce sperms. Select the correct statements from the following and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Statement I: Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division.
    Statement II: Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes.
    Statement III: Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids.
    Statement IV: Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis.
    Statement V: Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Human Reproduction

    Secondary spermatocytes complete the second meiotic division to give haploid spermatids (III correct), and spermatids differentiate into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis (V correct). Statement I is wrong because spermatogonia divide mitotically, Statement II is wrong because primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis I, and Statement IV is wrong because spermatids transform (not divide by mitosis) into sperm. So only Statements III and V are correct, option (2).

  164. Question 164 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in _______ related to the same nephron.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Excretory Products and their Elimination

    The juxtaglomerular apparatus forms at the point of contact where the distal convoluted tubule (macula densa) touches the afferent arteriole (juxtaglomerular cells) of the same nephron. Therefore the correct pairing is distal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole, option (4).

  165. Question 165 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Which one of the following is an appropriate example of sexual deceit?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Organisms and Populations

    In sexual deceit the Mediterranean orchid Ophrys mimics a female bumblebee so that the male bee attempts pseudocopulation and inadvertently pollinates the flower. Female wasp and fig is mutualism, sea anemone and clown fish is commensalism, and cuckoo and crow is brood parasitism, so only Ophrys and bumblebee is sexual deceit.

  166. Question 166 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Choose the correct statements regarding frog's anatomy:

    Statement I: Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine.
    Statement II: There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
    Statement III: The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs.
    Statement IV: Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes.
    Statement V: Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart.

    choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Structural Organisation in Animals

    The hepatic portal system is a special venous connection that carries blood from the intestine to the liver.

    Frogs have 10 pairs of cranial nerves, not 12 pairs.

    In female frogs, the ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca.

    The optic lobes are part of the midbrain, while the hindbrain consists mainly of the cerebellum and medulla oblongata.

    The sinus venosus opens into the right atrium of the heart.

    Therefore, the correct statements are I, III and V only.

  167. Question 167 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List-I with List-II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy:

    List I

    List II

    P) The foetus movement starts and hair appears on the head

    I) 24 weeks of pregnancy

    Q) The foetus develops limbs and digits

    II) 20 weeks of pregnancy

    R) The foetus develops external genital organs

    III) 8 weeks of pregnancy

    S) The foetus body is covered with fine hair; eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed

    IV) 12 weeks of pregnancy

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (2) · Human Reproduction

    Limbs and digits form by the end of the second month (about 8 weeks), so Q-III. Most major organ systems and the external genital organs are formed by the end of the first trimester (about 12 weeks), so R-IV. The first foetal movements and hair on the head appear around the fifth month (about 20 weeks), so P-II. By about 24 weeks the body is covered with fine hair with separated eyelids and eyelashes, so S-I. Hence P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I.

  168. Question 168 · Biology · +4 / −1

    In a population of a grasshopper species, the chromosome number of some members is 23 and some other members possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ______.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    Grasshoppers follow the XO type of sex determination: males are XO (a single X and no partner sex chromosome) while females are XX. Therefore the individual with 23 chromosomes lacks the second sex chromosome and is male, while the one with 24 chromosomes is female. Hence males and females respectively.

  169. Question 169 · Biology · +4 / −1

    In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Principles of Inheritance and Variation

    In honeybees the males (drones) are haploid, developing from unfertilised eggs by parthenogenesis, so their gametes must be formed by mitosis rather than meiosis. Male earthworms, frogs and grasshoppers are diploid and produce gametes through meiosis. Hence male honeybees.

  170. Question 170 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete, from outer to inner side.
    I. A. Zona pellucida
    II. B. Perivitelline space
    III. C. Corona radiata
    IV. D. Plasma membrane of ovum

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Human Reproduction

    Moving inward from the outside of the secondary oocyte, the layers occur in the order corona radiata, then zona pellucida, then the perivitelline space, and finally the plasma membrane of the ovum. This corresponds to the sequence C, A, B, D. Hence option (3).

    Fertilisation diagram: an ovum with, from inner to outer, the perivitelline space, zona pellucida and cells of the corona radiata, and sperm approaching.
  171. Question 171 · Biology · +4 / −1

    What is the reason behind production of large holes in 'Swiss Cheese'?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Microbes in Human Welfare

    The large holes (eyes) characteristic of Swiss cheese are produced by large amounts of CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} released by the bacterium Propionibacterium sharmanii during ripening. Clostridium is associated with butyric acid production, Lactobacillus with curd formation, and Trichoderma is a fungus (source of cyclosporin A). Hence the correct reason is CO2\mathrm{CO}_{2} from Propionibacterium sharmanii.

  172. Question 172 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which of the following genes would control cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively?

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Biotechnology and its Applications

    The cry genes of Bacillus thuringiensis are insect-group specific. The proteins encoded by cryIAc (and cryIIAb) control cotton bollworms, whereas the protein encoded by cryIAb controls the corn borer. Since the question asks for cotton bollworm followed by corn borer, the correct gene pair is cryIAc and cryIAb.

  173. Question 173 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between the organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Ecosystem

    Pyramids of number and biomass in grassland are upright, and the pyramid of energy is always upright. Inversion typically occurs for the pyramid of biomass in a sea/aquatic ecosystem, because the standing biomass of the phytoplankton (producers) at any moment is smaller than that of the zooplankton and consumers they support. Hence the pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted.

  174. Question 174 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Reproductive Health

    GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) is an in-vivo technique in which an ovum collected from a donor is transferred into the fallopian tube of a woman who cannot produce her own ovum but can provide a suitable environment for fertilisation and further development. Transfer of an early embryo with up to 8 blastomeres describes zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)/intra uterine transfer (IUT), not GIFT. Hence option (4) is correct.

  175. Question 175 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions.

    Statement I: The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria.
    Statement II: Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface.
    Statement III: Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA.
    Statement IV: A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton.
    Statement V: Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (4) · Cell: The Unit of Life

    Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface (II correct).
    Both mitochondria and plastids contain their own circular DNA (III correct).
    The cytoplasmic network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments forms the cytoskeleton (IV correct).
    The endomembrane system does not include mitochondria (I wrong), and the mitochondrion is a double membrane-bound organelle, not single (V wrong).
    Hence Statements II, III and IV are correct.

  176. Question 176 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell.

    Statement I: Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein.
    Statement II: Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer.
    Statement III: Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes.
    Statement IV: Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium.
    Statement V: Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Cell: The Unit of Life

    The human red blood cell (RBC) membrane contains about 52% protein and roughly 40% lipid (I correct)
    The phospholipids form a bilayer with their hydrophobic tails oriented inward, away from the aqueous medium (II and IV correct).
    Mesosomes and glycocalyx are prokaryotic features and are absent from the eukaryotic plasma membrane, so Statements III and V are wrong.
    Hence Statements I, II and IV are correct.

  177. Question 177 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Match List I with List II related to muscular/skeletal system:

    List I

    List II

    P) Tetany

    I) Inflammation of joints

    Q) Arthritis

    II) Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction

    R) Myasthenia gravis

    III) Wild contraction in muscle due to low Ca++Ca^{++} in body fluid

    S) Muscular dystrophy

    IV) Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Locomotion and Movement

    Tetany is the rapid, wild muscle spasm caused by low Ca++Ca^{++} in body fluid (P-III).
    Arthritis is inflammation of the joints (Q-I).
    Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction (R-II).
    Muscular dystrophy is progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle (S-IV).
    Hence P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV.

  178. Question 178 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (1) · Evolution

    The accepted chronological order of human evolution proceeds from Ramapithecus through Homo habilis and Homo erectus to Neanderthal man and finally modern Homo sapiens. Only option (1) reflects this sequence; the others wrongly place Homo sapiens, Ramapithecus or Neanderthal out of order.

  179. Question 179 · Biology · +4 / −1

    The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Biological Classification

    Aptenodytes is the genus of penguins, flightless birds whose forelimbs are modified into paddle-like flippers used for swimming.
    Struthio (ostrich) is flightless but its reduced wings are used for balance while running, not swimming, while Neophron (vulture) and Psittacula (parakeet) are flying birds.
    Hence Aptenodytes.

  180. Question 180 · Biology · +4 / −1

    Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species.

    Statement I: In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.
    Statement II: Both species benefit in mutualism.
    Statement III: Both species benefit in commensalism.
    Statement IV: In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.
    Statement V: In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Answer and explanation

    Answer: (3) · Organisms and Populations

    In mutualism both interacting species benefit (II correct).
    In parasitism one species benefits while the other is harmed (IV correct).
    In amensalism one species is harmed while the other remains unaffected (V correct).
    Commensalism benefits one species and leaves the other unaffected (not harmed), so Statement III is wrong, and Statement I is wrong because commensalism does not harm either partner.
    Hence Statements II, IV and V are correct.